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NURS 617 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

NURS 617 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS Potential adverse effect of long term intermediate-acting glucocorticoid use osteoporosis oral contraceptive with a higher failure rate progesterone only drug used both prophylactically and therapeutically for tuberculosis isoniazid antimicrobial agent that can cause photosensitivity doxycycline nucleoside analogue that can cause kidney damage if given IV

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/23/2025

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NURS 617 FINAL EXAM 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS
Potential adverse effect of long term intermediate-acting glucocorticoid use
osteoporosis
oral contraceptive with a higher failure rate
progesterone only
drug used both prophylactically and therapeutically for tuberculosis
isoniazid
antimicrobial agent that can cause photosensitivity
doxycycline
nucleoside analogue that can cause kidney damage if given IV
acyclovir
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NURS 617 FINAL EXAM 2025 /2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT ANSWERS

Potential adverse effect of long term intermediate-acting glucocorticoid use

osteoporosis

oral contraceptive with a higher failure rate

progesterone only

drug used both prophylactically and therapeutically for tuberculosis

isoniazid

antimicrobial agent that can cause photosensitivity

doxycycline

nucleoside analogue that can cause kidney damage if given IV

acyclovir

drug that can be administered intrathecally for muscle spasticity

baclofen

in La, the APRN who has PA is required to obtain this many pharmacy hours annually

6

classification of ADR when antihypertensive medication causes low bp

intrinsic

oral antihypertensive that can be given in pregnancy

alpha methyldopa

pt who has had a mechanical MVR should be taking which medication

warfarin

antitussive agent that can cause a "high" in large doses

dextromethorphan

least sedating antiemetic

h2 antagonist that can potentiate drug-drug interactions

cimetidine

given to reverse effects of warfarin

vitamin k

JNC-8 removed this class of drugs as a first-line treatment for HTN

beta blockers

drugs that affect this system should be avoided in pregnancy

RAAS

OTC med for the treatment of acne

benzoyl peroxide

AD

acne drug that requires enrollment in a pregnancy risk management program

accutane (isotretinoin)

causing __ is a disadvantage to using topical abx for acne

resistant organisms

the deficiency of these two vitamins is associated with chronic laxative use

a and k

class of drug used for acute asthma exacerbation (abbreviation)

SABAs

an electrolyte that needs to be checked in a pt with CKD who is starting an ACE-I

potassium

class of BP meds that can be used in pregnancy

alpha 2 agonist

drug contraindicated in pregnant female seeking treatment for psoriasis

tazarotene

what is the physiologic response of atenolol (tenormin)?

bradycardia and hypotension

antitussive that has potential for abuse among teens due to "high" achieved in larger doses:

dextromethorphan

criteria for APRNs to have prescriptive authority in Louisiana:

APRN must hold a current, unencumbered Louisiana RN and APRN license issued by LSBN for initial PA (answer was about an RN licensed in another state)

prescriptive authority is a privilege for the APRN. To maintain the PA credential after issuance, the APRN is required to obtain how many contact hours annually of continuing education (CE) in pharmacotherapeutics in their role and population?

6 hours of CE

what is lethal dose 50?

the dose of drug which produces death in one half of the test animals to which it is administered (and theoretically half of the patients whom it is given) (question is t/f.. answer is false.. something about diabetes)

what may happen with rapid discontinuation of dilantin?

status epilepticus

what should be prescribed with calcium for osteoporosis for greatest efficacy?

some form of vitamin D

AD

patient education for taking a calcium supplement for treatment of osteoporosis should include all of the following except:

calcium monotherapy as a first line treatment option for osteoporosis

what are the symptoms of nicotine withdrawal?

begin within about 24 hrs; restlessness, nervousness, insomnia and frequent awakening, increased appetite and weight gain, anxiety, irritability

nicotine withdrawal symptoms include all of the following except:

-nausea and diarrhea

-insomnia and frequent awakening

-anxiety and irritability

-increased appetite and weight gain

which h2 blocker inhibits cytochrome p-450 enxyme?

cimetidine

AD

a patient with phenytoin may exhibit drug toxicity when concurrently taking:

cimetidine

match the following medication to treat symptoms of cough and cold:

-guaifenesin: expectorant

-benzonatate: antitussive

-desloratadine: antihistamine

-pseudoephedrine: nasal decongestant

-dextromethorphan: antitussive

-levocetirizine: antihistamine

-oxymetazoline: nasal decongestant

lightheadedness, fatigue, and decreased bp following norvasc administration is what type of drug reaction?

intrinsic adverse drug reaction

mechanism of action of NSAIDs and APAP (acetaminophen)

-APAP (acetaminophen) - blocks prostaglandins

-NSAIDs - blocks COX 1 and COX 2 inhibitors

which of the following agents used to treat TB in pregnant women have demonstrated teratogenic effects on the fetus?

streptomycin

which statement is true about isoniazid therapy for TB?

this drug can cause peripheral neuropathy or hepatitis

which of the following combinations of drugs is most often used to initiate therapy for active TB in an isolated case (not associated with a group at high risk)

isoniazid, pyrazinamide, rifampin (RIP)

which of the following drugs used to treat TB would you monitor hepatic function?

pyrazinamide

disadvantages of antivirals for flu:

-must be administered within 48 hrs of onset of symptoms

-can cause anticholinergic effects: blurry vision, dry mouth, urinary retention

which one of the following thyroid replacement agents, can be given IV for emergency thyroid replacement?

levothyroxine

topical antibiotics are occasionally used for the treatment of acne. What should patients know about this method of acne treatment?

drug resistance may develop

what topical drug is most likely to cause contact dermatitis?

benzoyl peroxide

what can abrupt discontinuation of a physically dependent drug result in?

withdrawal (extreme agitation of the CNS)

before an NP prescribes, what is the first thing to know?

accurate diagnosis and determination of the therapeutic objective

what is the 1st step when prescribing drugs to patients?

diagnosis (define the patients problem)

who benefits most from taking benemid for gout?

-patients intolerant of allopurinol

-should be reserved for patients who OVERPRODUCE urate (excrete more than 800 mg in 24 hrs)

gout medication class which contain sulfa and should not be given to patients allergic to sulfa?

uricosuric drugs

gout medication safe in pregnancy?

probenecid

know the elements of a prescription:

-prescription format

-date

-patient identification information

-superscription

-inscription

-subscription

-signa

-refill instructions

-signature

-summary

if you were writing a prescription for the antibiotic amoxil, in which part of the prescription would you write the words "disp: 21 (21 tabs)?

subscription

of the following common practices, which are likely causes for a pharmacist to misread the prescription you have hand-written?

writing two or more prescriptions on a single page

advantage to using topical steroids:

effective in decreasing edema, erythema, and pruritus

which statement describes a pharmacodynamics effect of topical steroids?

inhibits movement of white blood cells and macrophages at side of application

which of the following statements is true regarding topical corticosteroid therapy?

may cause hypopigmentation of the skin, especially on the face

which statements are true regarding topical steroids?

-they inhibit mitotic activity in epidermal skin cells

-high potency products are contraindicated on the face and groin

-hydrocortisone is the strongest topical corticosteroid

-occlusive dressings will enhance absorption of these creams

advantages of using nitrates for angina:

-multiple formulations are available allowing for precise tailored individual therapy for all patients

-multiple routes of administration available allows for more precise individual selection and improves compliance and effectiveness

-quick relief for angina

-most effective in angina caused by coronary occlusive disease

-very useful for those who have acute CHF in association with ischemic heart disease or MI***

the use of nitrate drugs in the treatment of angina results in

dilation of coronary arteries

a selective cox 2 inhibitor selectively inhibits the form of cyclooxygenase enzyme that functions during which one of the following physiologic responses?

stress and inflammatory/injury

classes of antihypertensives that should be used in caution in asthma and diabetes

non selective beta blockers

whats a possible effect of first generation antihistamines in pediatric patients?

paradoxical CNS excitation

when prescribing the first generation antihistamines to children, what potential problem should the prescriber remain alert for in this special population?

paradoxical excitation

JNC hypertensive categories:

normal: SBP <120 and DPB <

prehypertension: SBP 120-139 or DBP 80-

HTN st 1: SBP 140-150 or DBP 90-

HTN st 2: SBP >/= 160 or DBP >/=

an np is evaluation a 53 y/o female with a BMI of 24 and a BP 110s/70s. according to the JNC-8, the patient is considered to have?

normal bp

according to JNC-8 guidelines, which of the following is the blood pressure treatment goal for pts with DM?

<140/

antifungals associated with Stevens johnson syndrome?

terbinafine

should benzos be prescribed for sleep?

yes, for short term; 2-3 wks at a time

what does doubling a drug dose do to its therapeutic effect?

(false), further increases in dosage cannot increase the drugs effect anymore

what should you monitor for when using ACE-Is in patients with HTN and CKD?

hyperkalemia

renal function

characteristics of ace-I prescribed in the setting of chronic CHF include which of the following?

can produce hyperkalemia

disadvantages of ace-I include which of the following?

possibility of persistent dry cough

not recommended in pregnancy