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NURS 617 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2
2025/2026 SUMMER QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS GRADED A+
A pediatric patient who weighs 30lbs is prescribed Prednisolone 1.5mg / kg / day as a " burst therapy " for asthma exacerbation. Please calculate a dose in whole number of mg for a total daily dose of Prednisolone
20
All of the following therapies are used as acute therapy for a cluster headache except
a. Intranasal lidocaine
b. Intranasal sumatriptan ( imitrex )
c. Ergotamine derivative
d. Verapamil
d. Verapamil
A disadvantage to the use of nicotinic acid ( niacin ) for hyperlipidemia is?
a. It is associated with constipation
b. it may cause a life - threatening myopathy
c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
d. It will decrease the absorption of other oral drugs given simultaneously
c. It commonly produces flushing in the face and neck area
All of the following respiratory agents are safe to use in pregnancy except
a. brompheniramine ( dimetane )
b. potassium iodide
c. hydrocortisone
d. dextromethorphan ( Delsym )
b. potassium iodide
antihistamines have antagonistic activity on cholinergic receptors leading to anticholinergic adverse effects. Examples of anticholinergic adverse effects include
a. bronchospasm
b. nasal stuffiness
c. pruritus
d. tachycardia
d. tachycardia
beta blockers are used therapeutically in patients with angina
a. decrease the time allowed for coronary blood flow
b. increase cardiac output
C. increase the time that the heart is in diastole
a. Cromolyn
b. Low dose ICS
C. Medium dose ICS
d. Medium dose ICS + LABA
d. Medium dose ICS + LABA
Although most antiemetics also produce sedation , which of the following is the least likely to have this effect
a. Dronabinol ( marinol )
b. Ondansetron ( zofran )
C. Promethazine ( Phenergan )
d. Trimethobenzamide ( Tigan )
b. Ondansetron ( zofran )
Beta blockers must be used with caution in patients who have heart failure. Which of the following statements describe possible consequences of slowing the heart rate in a patient with HF?
a. May increase perfusion of coronary arteries
b. May increase cardiac contractility
C. May increase myocardial oxygen supply
d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level
d. May decrease cardiac output to a critical level
Bile acid sequestrants
a. Are all considered pregnancy category D
b. Are activated from a prodrug to an active form in the liver
c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue
d. Require close monitoring of hepatic function
c. Reduce the amount of cholesterol stored in adipose tissue
Chlamydial pneumonia should be treated with the following suggested antimicrobial?
a. Amoxicillin ( Amoxil )
b. Amoxicillin - clavulanate ( Augmentin )
c. Azithromycin ( Zithromax )
d. Ceftriaxone ( rocephin )
c. Azithromycin ( Zithromax )
Calcium channel blockers
a. Block calcium channels inayocardial cells resulting in decreased myocardial contraction
b. Cause increased heart rate by speeding conductance of electrical cells
C. Decrease calcium movement into the extracellular environment
d. Have negative effects on glucose levels in diabetic patients
c. Can be useful in the treatment of hypertensive crisis
d. Often cause impotence in men
c. Can be useful in the treatment of hypertensive crisis
Electrolyte depletion is most likely to occur with which of the following laxatives
a. Bisacodyl ( doculax )
b. Mineral oil
c. Psyllium ( Metamucil )
d. Sodium docusate ( Colace )
a. Bisacodyl ( doculax )
Hyperkalemia is a side effect of which of the following drugs
a. Chlorthalidone ( Hgroton )
b. Furosemide ( Lasix )
c. Hydrochlorothiazide ( Hydrodiuril )
d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone )
d. Spironolactone ( Aldactone )
Inhalational formations of a drug are absorbed very quickly because
a There are no natural defenses against inhaled particles
b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes
C. There is a small alveolar membrane surface area
d. They will be absorbed equally from both the lungs and the digestive tract
b. Of the enormous blood supply at the alveolar capillary membranes
Many classes can be used for migraine prophylaxis. Which of the following classes of drugs has an FDA indication for preventive use with migraines
a. Beta blockers
b. MAOIS
C. SSRIS
d. Tricyclic antidepressants
a. Beta blockers
Selective Beta 1 blockers
a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers
b. Can cause improvement in the triglyceride and HDL levels
c. Commonly result in mildly increased anxiety.
d. Often precipitate bronchospasm in patients with asthma even in low doses
a. Are safer to use in diabetic patients than nonselective beta blockers
For treatment of ear infections with an antibacterial product , which one is CONTRAINDICATED if the tympanic membrane is perforated
a. Cortisporin Otic Solution
b. Cortisporin Otic Suspension
c. Ciprofloxacin- dexamethasone ( ciprodex )
d. Ofloxacin ( Floxin ) Otic
a. Cortisporin Otic Solution
Sprinonolactone ( Aldactone ) is often used in combination with the thiazide diuretics because
a. The antihypertensive efficacy is increased when the renin - angiotensin - aldosterone mechanism is activated
b. The combination improves compliance in long term hypertensive therapy
c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides
d. The potential risk of reflex tachycardia is reduced
c. The potassium sparing diuretic offsets the potential for hypokalemia often seen with the thiazides
The cornerstone of moderate persistent asthma drug therapy is the use of
a. Inhaled corticosteroids
b. Mast cell stabilizers
C. Oral theophylline
d. Short acting beta agonist
a. Inhaled corticosteroids
In the elderly population , which H2 receptor antagonist is considered safest?
a. Cimetidine ( Tagamet )
b. Famotidine ( Pepcid )
C. Nizatadine ( Axid )
d. Ranitidine ( Zantac
b. Famotidine ( Pepcid )
Long term use of antacids can lead to serum electrolyte and mineral imbalances which may cause adverse effects such as
a. Dysgeusia
b. Hypotension
c. Nephrolithiasis
d. Polyuria
c. Nephrolithiasis
The drug of choice in pneumonia for a previously healthy individual and no comorbidities
Which of the following drugs commonly indicated for asthma and COPD should be used cautiously in women in their 3 trimester
a. Albuterol ( Ventolin )
b. Formoterol ( foradil )
C. Salmeterol ( Serevent )
d. Terbutaline ( brethine)
d. Terbutaline ( brethine)
Which of the following antimycobacterial drugs can be used prophylactically and therapeutically for TB
a. Ethambutol ( myambutol )
b. Isoniazid ( INH )
c. Pyrazinadamine ( PZA )
d. Streptomycin
b. Isoniazid ( INH )
Which statement is true about adjunctive therapy for migraine headaches
a. Butalbital is safe to use during pregnancy
B. It should be reserved for cases where serotonin agonists are ineffective
c. Narcotic therapy should be limited to injectable to discourage self - administration
d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse drug effects.
d. Metoclopramide may serve a dual purpose in relieving both disease symptoms and adverse drug effects.
Which of the following gastrointestinal agents can be used for both constipation and diarrhea
a. Bulk forming agents
b. Saline laxatives
c. Stimulant agents
d. Stool softeners
a. Bulk forming agents
Which of the following agents are responsible for increasing the LES tone
a. Alcohol
b. Calcium channel blockers.
c. Metoclopramide
d. Tobacco
c. Metoclopramide
Which of the following nasal decongestants is contraindicated in pregnancy
a. Ephedrine
b. Oxymetazoline ( Afrin )
a. Cephalexin ( Keflex )
b. Amoxicillin ( Amoxil )
c. Moxifloxacin ( avelox )
d. TMP - SMX ( Bactrim septra )
d. TMP - SMX ( Bactrim septra )
Which of the following side effects is experienced by patients taking verapamil
a. Chest pain
b. Constipation
C. Diarrhea
d. Nocturnal cough
b. Constipation
What patient education would you give when prescribing a nitrate for treatment of angina
a. Nitrates should not be used for acute episodes of angina
b. Nitrates commonly cause headaches with initial doses of the drug
C. Take this medication with the first meal of the day
d. Tolerance and physical dependence do not occur with continuous use of this medication
b. Nitrates commonly cause headaches with initial doses of the drug
Which of the following drugs commonly used to treat patients with headaches is considered safe in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy?
a. Erotamine ( Ergostat )
b. Ketorolac ( Toradol )
c. Ondansetron ( Zofran )
d. Almotriptan ( Axert )
c. Ondansetron ( Zofran )
Which lab test should be monitored to detect adverse drug reaction common with statins
a. Glucose
b. Liver function test
C. Potassium
d. White blood cells
b. Liver function test
Which drug results in pharmacological blockade of sodium and chloride co - transport at the distal convoluted tubule
a. Bumetanide ( bumex )
b. Spironolactone ( Aldactone )
c. Chlorothiazide ( diuril )
d. Furosemide ( Lasix )
b. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
d. Streptomycin
d. Streptomycin
Which of the following agents are recommended for Step 2 treatment of persistent asthma? SATA
a. Anticholinergics
b. Leukotriene reception antagonist
c. Long acting beta agonist
d. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid
a. Anticholinergics
b. Leukotriene reception antagonist
Several categories of drugs are used for prophylaxis of migraines. Which ones are FDA approved?
a. Anticonvulsants
b. Beta blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Tricyclic antidepressants
a. Anticonvulsants
b. Beta blockers
Which of the following antidepressants are indicated to be administered to children as young as 6 years of age? SATA
a. Imipramine ( Tofranil )
b. Paroxetine ( Paxil )
c. Sertraline ( Zoloft )
d. Tranylcypromine ( Parnate )
a. Imipramine ( Tofranil )
c. Sertraline ( Zoloft )
Ethanol withdrawal symptoms include? SATA
a. Insomnia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypothermia
d. Seizures
a. Insomnia
d. Seizures
Theophylline serum levels are increased in which of the following?
a. Cigarette smokers
b. Congestive heart failure
