Docsity
Log inSign up
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search Store documents

The best documents sold by students who completed their studies

Search through all study resources
Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

University Rankings

Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

From our blog

Exams and Study
Go to the blog

NURS 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VE, Exams of Nursing

Maryville CollegeNursing

NURS 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/26/2025

Theexamwhisperer
Theexamwhisperer 🇺🇸

1.9K documents

1 / 26

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
NURS 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics
Practice Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY
1. A patient taking lisinopril should be monitored for which serious
adverse effect?
• Hyperglycemia
• Hyperkalemia
• Hypocalcemia
• Hypernatremia
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels due to
reduced aldosterone secretion.
2. Which antibiotic class is contraindicated in children under 8 due to risk
of permanent teeth discoloration?
• Cephalosporins
• Tetracyclines
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a

Partial preview of the text

Download NURS 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NURS 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics

Practice Exam 3 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS

RATIONALES 2025 MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY

  1. A patient taking lisinopril should be monitored for which serious adverse effect?
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypernatremia Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels due to reduced aldosterone secretion.
  1. Which antibiotic class is contraindicated in children under 8 due to risk of permanent teeth discoloration?
  • Cephalosporins
  • Tetracyclines
  • Macrolides
  • Aminoglycosides Tetracyclines can bind to calcium in developing teeth, leading to discoloration and enamel hypoplasia.
  1. Which medication is first-line for generalized anxiety disorder?
  • Bupropion
  • Escitalopram
  • Diazepam
  • Propranolol SSRIs like escitalopram are considered first-line due to efficacy and safety for long-term use.
  1. What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
  • Platelet aggregation inhibitor
  • Vitamin K antagonist
  • Direct thrombin inhibitor
  • Factor Xa inhibitor Warfarin inhibits synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
  1. Which of the following is a beta-1 selective blocker?
  • Metoprolol
  • Diabetes
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia Clozapine can severely suppress white blood cell count, necessitating regular CBC monitoring.
  1. Which drug is contraindicated with sildenafil use?
  • Beta-blockers
  • Nitrates
  • Diuretics
  • ACE inhibitors Sildenafil and nitrates together can cause life-threatening hypotension due to vasodilation.
  1. First-line treatment for hypertension in African American adults includes:
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta blockers
  • Alpha blockers CCBs and thiazides are more effective due to reduced renin activity in this population.
  1. Which drug can cause gingival hyperplasia?
  • Phenytoin
  • Valproic acid
  • Carbamazepine
  • Lamotrigine Phenytoin stimulates fibroblast proliferation, leading to gum overgrowth.
  1. What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?
  • Naloxone
  • Flumazenil
  • Protamine sulfate
  • Atropine Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepine binding at the GABA receptor.
  1. Which antidepressant is associated with the highest risk of sexual dysfunction?
  • Bupropion
  • Paroxetine
  • Mirtazapine
  • Beta blockers
  • ARBs Beta blockers can blunt adrenergic warning signs like tremor and tachycardia.
  1. Which antibiotic has a risk for QT prolongation?
  • Amoxicillin
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Azithromycin
  • Doxycycline Macrolides like azithromycin prolong the QT interval by affecting cardiac potassium channels.
  1. What is the preferred treatment for acute gout attack?
  • Colchicine
  • Allopurinol
  • Probenecid
  • Febuxostat Colchicine is effective in reducing inflammation during acute gout flares.
  1. Which medication is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?
  • Flumazenil
  • Nalmefene
  • Naloxone
  • Methadone Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses CNS and respiratory depression.
  1. A common side effect of SSRIs is:
  • Weight loss
  • Gastrointestinal upset
  • Bradycardia
  • Blurred vision Increased serotonin levels can stimulate GI receptors, causing nausea and diarrhea.
  1. What is the therapeutic range for digoxin in heart failure?
  • 2.0–2.5 ng/mL
  • 1.5–2.5 ng/mL
  • 0.8–2.0 ng/mL
  • 0.5–0.9 ng/mL Lower levels are preferred in heart failure to reduce toxicity without compromising efficacy.
  • Mood changes Corticosteroids typically cause hypertension due to fluid retention, not hypotension.
  1. What is the preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy?
  • Warfarin
  • Low molecular weight heparin
  • Dabigatran
  • Rivaroxaban LMWH does not cross the placenta and is safe in pregnancy, unlike warfarin.
  1. Which of the following is a long-acting beta-agonist?
  • Salmeterol
  • Albuterol
  • Levalbuterol
  • Terbutaline Salmeterol has a long duration of action and is used in maintenance therapy for asthma/COPD.
  1. Which opioid is considered partial agonist and used in opioid dependence treatment?
  • Morphine
  • Buprenorphine
  • Codeine
  • Fentanyl Buprenorphine partially activates opioid receptors, helping with withdrawal symptoms.
  1. Which medication should be avoided in patients with G6PD deficiency?
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Sulfonamides
  • Penicillin
  • Clarithromycin Sulfonamides can trigger hemolysis in G6PD-deficient patients.
  1. Which class of drugs is most effective for lowering LDL cholesterol?
  • Statins
  • Fibrates
  • Niacin
  • Bile acid sequestrants Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, significantly reducing LDL levels.
  1. What is a key adverse effect of amiodarone?
  • Hypoglycemia
  1. Which medication can induce a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol?
  • Metronidazole
  • Clindamycin
  • Doxycycline
  • Linezolid Combining metronidazole and alcohol can cause nausea, flushing, and tachycardia.
  1. What lab value should be monitored in patients on clozapine?
  • Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
  • Platelet count
  • ALT/AST
  • Creatinine Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; ANC must be monitored regularly.
  1. What is a serious adverse effect of amlodipine?
  • Cough
  • Hypokalemia
  • Peripheral edema
  • Hyperglycemia Amlodipine causes vasodilation, which can lead to fluid leakage and peripheral edema.
  1. Which medication requires a slow titration to prevent Stevens- Johnson syndrome?
  • Lamotrigine
  • Topiramate
  • Valproic acid
  • Phenytoin Lamotrigine titration must be slow to minimize risk of life- threatening skin reactions.
  1. What is the black box warning for fluoroquinolones?
  • Tendon rupture
  • Liver failure
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Vision loss Fluoroquinolones can damage tendons, especially in older adults or those on corticosteroids.
  1. What drug is used to reverse warfarin’s effects?
  • Protamine sulfate
  • Vitamin K
  • Folic acid
  • Vitamin B
  • Pyridoxine (B6)
  • Thiamine INH depletes vitamin B6, leading to neuropathy unless supplemented.
  1. What is a notable adverse effect of ACE inhibitors?
  • Bradycardia
  • Dry cough
  • Rash
  • Edema ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, which can cause a persistent dry cough.
  1. Which medication can cause ototoxicity?
  • Amoxicillin
  • Gentamicin
  • Cefazolin
  • Azithromycin Aminoglycosides like gentamicin can damage inner ear structures.
  1. Which diabetic medication carries a risk for euglycemic ketoacidosis?
  • Glipizide
  • Empagliflozin
  • Sitagliptin
  • Pioglitazone SGLT2 inhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion, which can trigger ketosis despite normal glucose levels.
  1. What is the mechanism of action of alendronate?
  • Calcitonin agonist
  • Inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
  • Increases calcium absorption
  • Parathyroid hormone analog Alendronate is a bisphosphonate that slows bone breakdown.
  1. Which drug is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist?
  • Clonidine
  • Lisinopril
  • Losartan
  • Hydralazine Clonidine reduces sympathetic outflow, lowering blood pressure.
  1. What is the preferred treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in a healthy outpatient?
  • Vancomycin
  • Azithromycin
  • Cefepime
  • Linezolid Macrolides like azithromycin cover common pathogens in otherwise healthy patients.
  1. What adverse effect is associated with spironolactone?
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Gynecomastia
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyponatremia Spironolactone is an anti-androgen and may cause breast enlargement in males.
  1. Which medication is most likely to cause pancreatitis?
  • Lisinopril
  • Valproic acid
  • Amiodarone
  • Phenytoin Valproate can cause severe and potentially fatal pancreatitis.
  1. Which anticoagulant does not require INR monitoring?
  • Warfarin
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Heparin
  • Enoxaparin Rivaroxaban, a DOAC, has predictable pharmacokinetics and doesn’t require INR monitoring.
  1. What is a common side effect of tamoxifen?
  • Anemia
  • Hot flashes
  • Bradycardia
  • Visual disturbances Tamoxifen affects estrogen receptors, leading to menopausal symptoms like hot flashes.
  1. Which of the following drugs is used in status epilepticus?
  • Levetiracetam
  • Lorazepam
  • Carbamazepine