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Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 1 Questions And Correct Answers (Ve, Exams of Nursing

Maryville CollegeNursing

Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 1 Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Maryville University

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2024/2025

Available from 06/26/2025

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Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics
Practice Exam 1 Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2025 Maryville University
1. A patient with a history of hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this
medication?
Hyperkalemia
Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can reduce aldosterone secretion, leading
to potassium retention and resulting in hyperkalemia.
2. Which class of antibiotics is most associated with tendon rupture?
Fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, are known to increase the
risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults and those on
corticosteroids.
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Download Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics Practice Exam 1 Questions And Correct Answers (Ve and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Nurs 615 Advanced Pharmacotherapeutics

Practice Exam 1 Questions And Correct

Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales

2025 Maryville University

  1. A patient with a history of hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this medication? Hyperkalemia Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can reduce aldosterone secretion, leading to potassium retention and resulting in hyperkalemia.
  2. Which class of antibiotics is most associated with tendon rupture? Fluoroquinolones Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, are known to increase the risk of tendon rupture, especially in older adults and those on corticosteroids.
  1. Metformin is contraindicated in patients with: Renal insufficiency Because metformin is excreted unchanged by the kidneys, impaired renal function increases the risk of lactic acidosis.
  2. What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? They irreversibly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase pump in parietal cells. This action reduces gastric acid secretion, making PPIs effective for GERD and peptic ulcer disease.
  3. A common adverse effect of amiodarone therapy is: Pulmonary fibrosis Long-term use of amiodarone can cause serious pulmonary toxicity, including fibrosis, requiring monitoring.
  4. Warfarin exerts its anticoagulant effect by inhibiting: Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors Warfarin interferes with the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X, which are vitamin K-dependent.
  5. Which diabetic medication is associated with weight loss and a low risk of hypoglycemia? GLP-1 receptor agonists These agents increase insulin secretion and delay gastric emptying, leading to weight loss and minimal hypoglycemia risk.
  1. Which lab should be monitored in a patient taking atorvastatin? Liver function tests (LFTs) Statins can cause hepatic injury, so regular monitoring of liver enzymes is important.
  2. Digoxin toxicity is exacerbated by which electrolyte abnormality? Hypokalemia Low potassium enhances digoxin’s binding to its receptor, increasing toxicity risk.
  3. What is the black box warning for SSRIs in adolescents? Increased risk of suicidal ideation SSRIs can increase suicidal thoughts in children, adolescents, and young adults.
  4. Which insulin type has the fastest onset of action? Insulin lispro Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin used for mealtime glucose control.
  5. Which medication is appropriate for acute angina relief? Nitroglycerin Sublingual nitroglycerin provides rapid vasodilation and symptom relief in angina.
  6. What is the primary concern when prescribing opioids long- term?

Dependence and tolerance Chronic opioid use can lead to physical dependence and tolerance, requiring careful monitoring.

  1. What class of drugs is used as first-line for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? SSRIs SSRIs are considered first-line for GAD due to their efficacy and tolerability.
  2. Which anticonvulsant is also used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder? Valproic acid Valproic acid stabilizes neuronal activity and is effective in treating manic episodes.
  3. Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy? Losartan ARBs like losartan are teratogenic and should be avoided during pregnancy.
  4. A common side effect of niacin is: Flushing Niacin causes prostaglandin-mediated vasodilation, resulting in flushing, which can be mitigated with aspirin.
  1. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with a sulfa allergy? Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole This drug contains a sulfonamide component and can cause severe reactions in sulfa-allergic patients.
  2. What is the mechanism of action of albuterol? Beta-2 agonist Albuterol stimulates beta-2 receptors, causing bronchodilation.
  3. Which drug is used for opioid use disorder maintenance therapy? Buprenorphine Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms.
  4. What is a major side effect of lithium therapy? Nephrotoxicity Lithium can cause renal impairment and requires regular renal function monitoring.
  5. Which lab test should be monitored with long-term amiodarone use? Thyroid function Amiodarone contains iodine and can cause hypo- or hyperthyroidism.
  1. What is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors? Cough Bradykinin accumulation leads to the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors.
  2. A serious adverse effect of clozapine is: Agranulocytosis Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia; WBC monitoring is mandatory.
  3. What is the recommended treatment for status epilepticus? IV lorazepam Lorazepam acts quickly and is effective in stopping prolonged seizures.
  4. The maximum daily dose of acetaminophen is: 4 grams Higher doses increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, especially with chronic alcohol use.
  5. Which drug is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose? N-acetylcysteine NAC restores glutathione levels and protects the liver from damage.
  6. Which antidepressant is associated with a risk of seizures at high doses? Bupropion

These agents promote glucosuria, creating an environment conducive to infections.

  1. The primary use of levetiracetam is: Seizure disorder Levetiracetam is an antiepileptic used to manage partial and generalized seizures.
  2. What is the primary action of spironolactone? Aldosterone antagonist Spironolactone blocks aldosterone receptors, promoting sodium excretion and potassium retention.
  3. Which medication increases the risk of serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs? Tramadol Tramadol has serotonergic activity and can precipitate serotonin syndrome when used with SSRIs.
  4. What is the black box warning for black cohosh? Hepatotoxicity Black cohosh, an herbal remedy for menopause, has been linked to liver damage.
  5. Which vitamin should be given to patients on isoniazid to prevent neuropathy?

Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) Isoniazid depletes B6, increasing the risk of peripheral neuropathy.

  1. What is the most appropriate drug for immediate blood pressure control in a hypertensive emergency? IV labetalol Labetalol works rapidly and is used intravenously to reduce BP in emergencies.
  2. Which contraceptive method is most effective? Implantable progestin (e.g., Nexplanon) Implants have failure rates less than 1%, making them among the most effective reversible contraceptives.
  3. What is a major contraindication for beta-blockers? Bradycardia Beta-blockers slow the heart rate and are contraindicated in patients with bradycardia or heart block.
  4. A patient taking levothyroxine should be advised to take it: On an empty stomach in the morning Food reduces absorption of levothyroxine; taking it on an empty stomach ensures consistent absorption.
  5. The preferred antihypertensive for a patient with diabetes and proteinuria is:

Haloperidol Typical antipsychotics like haloperidol have a high affinity for dopamine receptors, increasing EPS risk.

  1. What is the initial drug of choice for Parkinson’s disease? Carbidopa-levodopa This combination increases dopamine levels in the brain and reduces peripheral side effects.
  2. Which medication is used to treat both depression and chronic pain? Duloxetine Duloxetine is an SNRI effective for major depressive disorder and neuropathic or musculoskeletal pain.
  3. Which of the following is an adverse effect of chronic PPI use? Osteoporosis Long-term PPI use may impair calcium absorption, increasing fracture risk.
  4. Which of the following medications is an anticholinergic used for overactive bladder? Oxybutynin Oxybutynin reduces bladder muscle contractions, relieving urgency and frequency.
  1. A known side effect of methotrexate is: Bone marrow suppression Methotrexate interferes with DNA synthesis, affecting rapidly dividing cells like bone marrow.
  2. What is the main side effect of niacin that limits its use? Flushing Niacin causes vasodilation and histamine release, leading to uncomfortable flushing.
  3. Which medication should be avoided with sildenafil? Nitroglycerin Combining nitrates and PDE5 inhibitors like sildenafil can cause life- threatening hypotension.
  4. Which drug is used to manage alcohol withdrawal seizures? Lorazepam Benzodiazepines like lorazepam are the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including seizures.
  5. What is a key side effect of methimazole? Agranulocytosis Methimazole can cause severe bone marrow suppression; monitor for signs of infection.
  6. What is a contraindication for oral contraceptive use? History of thromboembolic disease
  1. The preferred antibiotic for Lyme disease in children under 8 is: Amoxicillin Doxycycline is contraindicated in young children due to effects on teeth and bones.
  2. What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide? Dopamine antagonist Metoclopramide blocks dopamine receptors in the GI tract and brain to increase motility and reduce nausea.
  3. What is a significant side effect of clindamycin? C. difficile infection Clindamycin can disrupt normal flora and is strongly associated with C. difficile overgrowth.
  4. The best treatment for hypothyroidism is: Levothyroxine Synthetic T4 effectively restores thyroid hormone levels in hypothyroidism.
  5. Which medication is associated with lactic acidosis in renal failure? Metformin In renal dysfunction, metformin can accumulate, leading to lactic acidosis.
  1. What is the target INR range for most patients on warfarin? 2.0–3. 0 This range balances the risk of clotting and bleeding in conditions like atrial fibrillation.
  2. Which drug is used in opioid detoxification to reduce cravings? Methadone Methadone is a long-acting opioid agonist used in medication- assisted treatment.
  3. What is the black box warning for pioglitazone? Heart failure Pioglitazone can cause fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure.
  4. Which class of antihypertensive can cause a dry cough? ACE inhibitors Increased bradykinin levels from ACE inhibitors can cause a persistent cough.
  5. A patient with asthma and allergic rhinitis may benefit from: Montelukast Montelukast blocks leukotrienes and helps manage both asthma and allergic symptoms.
  6. Which drug class is used for BPH and also lowers blood pressure? Alpha-1 blockers

Tyramine-containing foods MAOIs block tyramine metabolism, which can lead to hypertensive crisis.

  1. Which medication should be avoided in a patient with BPH and urinary retention? Diphenhydramine Diphenhydramine has anticholinergic effects that can worsen urinary retention.
  2. Which class of medications is known to cause angioedema? ACE inhibitors Though rare, ACE inhibitors can cause life-threatening angioedema, especially in African Americans.
  3. Which medication increases the risk of myopathy when combined with statins? Gemfibrozil Gemfibrozil interferes with statin metabolism, raising the risk of muscle injury.
  4. The primary indication for varenicline (Chantix) is: Smoking cessation Varenicline is a partial nicotine agonist used to reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms.
  1. Which drug requires liver function monitoring due to hepatotoxicity? Isoniazid Isoniazid can cause liver inflammation and requires regular LFTs.
  2. Which antidiabetic medication promotes urinary glucose excretion? Canagliflozin SGLT2 inhibitors like canagliflozin block glucose reabsorption in the kidney.
  3. What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors in African American patients? Angioedema African Americans are at higher risk of developing angioedema with ACE inhibitors.
  4. Which antibiotic is associated with QT prolongation? Azithromycin Azithromycin can prolong the QT interval and increase the risk of arrhythmias.
  5. Which antifungal is most nephrotoxic? Amphotericin B Amphotericin B can cause severe renal toxicity and electrolyte disturbances.