Download NURS 547 FINAL EXAM|ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY|2025-2026|ACTUAL EXAM WITH 200 Qs&As|A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NURS 547 FINAL EXAM|ADVANCED
PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY| 2025 - 2026|ACTUAL
EXAM WITH 200 Qs&As|GRADED A+|UNIVERSITY
OF SOUTHERN CALIFORNIA(USC)
What are the two types of chest trauma? Blunt (due to abuse, explosion, falls, MVA) and penetrating (due to stabbing, gunshot, shrapnel). What is the purpose of a chest tube? To drain fluid, air, or blood from the pleural space and restore normal negative pressure. What does tidaling in a chest tube indicate? Tidaling (rise during inspiration and fall during exhalation) indicates good function of the chest tube. What does continuous bubbling in the suction chamber of a chest tube indicate? Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, which is a bad sign. What should be done if a chest tube disconnects from the patient? Apply petroleum gauze, a 4x4 gauze, and call the provider. What is the Valsalva maneuver used for during chest tube removal?
It involves taking a deep breath, holding it, and bearing down to prevent air from entering the pleural space. What are the signs of pulmonary contusion? Bruising of the lungs, leakage of fluids, and risk for infection due to localized edema. What is flail chest and how is it managed? Flail chest is a disruption in the support system due to multiple rib fractures, managed with supportive care such as turning, coughing, deep breathing, and bronchodilators. What is Beck's Triad and what condition is it associated with? Beck's Triad includes muffled heart sounds, jugular venous distension (JVD), and decreased blood pressure, associated with cardiac tamponade. What is a tension pneumothorax? A complication where pressure builds in the pleural space, causing lung collapse and tracheal deviation to the unaffected side. What are the common signs and symptoms of pneumothorax? Sudden pleuritic pain, respiratory distress, crepitus, diminished breath sounds, dyspnea, tachypnea, and tachycardia.
A 'rice Krispies' feeling under the skin due to trapped air. What is the purpose of using a non-rebreather mask in respiratory management? To provide high concentrations of oxygen when O2 saturation is below 90%. What imaging tests are used to evaluate chest trauma? Chest X-ray (CXR), ultrasound, and CT scans. What medications might be used in the management of chest trauma? Morphine, hydromorphone, fentanyl, and albuterol. What are the signs and symptoms of respiratory distress? Dyspnea, tachypnea, cyanosis, confusion, fatigue, and accessory muscle use. What is the management for respiratory distress? Oxygen therapy, treating the underlying cause, positive pressure (BiPap or CPAP), positioning the least affected lung down, bronchodilators, and steroids. What does ARDS stand for and what is its primary cause?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome; caused by failure of oxygenation. What are the characteristics of ARDS? Inflammation and edema leading to stiff lungs, decreased compliance and elasticity. What is the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for mild ARDS? 200 - 300. What are the signs and symptoms of ARDS? Rapid onset severe dyspnea, bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest X-ray, increased work of breathing, pink frothy sputum, and crackles. What are the management strategies for ARDS? Ventilation, prone positioning, oxygen therapy, chest physiotherapy, treating underlying causes, and high Fowler's position. What is PEEP and why is it used? Positive end-expiratory pressure; used to keep alveoli open to prevent atelectasis.
What are common complications of mechanical ventilation? Increased intracranial pressure, altered mental status, decreased cardiac output, hypervolemia, venous thromboembolism, barotrauma, pneumothorax, and gastrointestinal bleeding. What is coronary atherosclerosis? An abnormal accumulation of lipid/fatty substances and fibrous tissue lining the vessels. What are the risk factors for coronary atherosclerosis? Modifiable (diabetes, hypertension, smoking, obesity) and nonmodifiable (age, sex, ethnicity). What is stable angina? Predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest. What is unstable angina? More frequent and longer-lasting pain that may occur at rest.
What are the signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction? Sudden crushing, radiating chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea/vomiting, sweating, and pallor. What is the immediate treatment for a myocardial infarction? MONA: Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, and Antithrombotics (Aspirin and Heparin). What is the difference between STEMI and NSTEMI? STEMI has ST elevation in at least 2 leads indicating a complete block, while NSTEMI shows ST depression or T inversion indicating a partial block. What is heart failure and how is it classified? Heart failure is when the heart cannot pump effectively; it can be left-sided (backing up into the lungs) or right-sided (backing up into the body). What are the signs and symptoms of left-sided heart failure? Shortness of breath, cough, crackles, weak thready pulses, S3 gallop, and restlessness.
What is the heart rate range for Atrial Fibrillation? 300 - 600 bpm, irregular. How does Atrial Flutter differ from Atrial Fibrillation in terms of heart rate? Atrial Flutter has a heart rate of 75-150 bpm, usually regular. What is the characteristic ECG appearance of Atrial Flutter? Sawtooth shaped. What are the treatments for Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)? Stable: Valsalva maneuver, carotid massage, cold water on neck, adenosine, beta- blockers. Unstable: cardioversion. What is the heart rate for Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?
100 bpm, regular, no P wave, narrow QRS. What is the treatment for stable Ventricular Tachycardia with a pulse?
Oxygen, amiodarone, cardioversion. What is the treatment for unstable Ventricular Tachycardia without a pulse? CPR & defibrillator, epinephrine, and vasopressin. What is the heart rate range for Ventricular Tachycardia? 100 - 250 bpm, regular, tombstone looking. What can Ventricular Tachycardia lead to? Torsade's de pointe. What is the treatment for Ventricular Fibrillation? CPR, defibrillation, oxygen, epinephrine, amiodarone. What is the treatment for Asystole? CPR, epinephrine.
Acute onset dyspnea, pleuritic pain, crackles, tachypnea. What is the treatment for pulmonary embolism? Oxygen, fluids, pressors, anticoagulants, thrombolytics. What are the types of burns? Chemical, thermal, radiation/electrical. What is the Parkland formula for burn resuscitation? 24 hr resuscitation = 2 mL x % TBSA x weight (kg); 4 mL for electrical burns. What are the nursing care steps for burns? Cool water, cover area, remove clothing, fluids/IV (LR or NS), monitor & treat hyperkalemia and hyponatremia, monitor I/O, temperature regulation, NGT & PPI management, monitor airway, antibiotics for infection, pain management. What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning? 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
What are the signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning? Red lips, carbonaceous sputum, tachycardia. What is Mafenide acetate used for? It is a medication for burns but is painful. What is the effect of silver nitrate on linens? It stains linens black and can cause low sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) levels; it does not penetrate eschar. What are the uses of Acticoat silver? It is bacteriostatic and fungicidal, produces pseudoeschar, and should be moistened with sterile water. What is the primary action of silver sulfadiazine? It is common and bactericidal, producing pseudoeschar with limited eschar penetration.
Caused by pulmonary embolism (PE), cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax; treated with chest tube, fluids, vasopressors, and DVT/PE treatment. What is distributive shock and its septic form? Distributive shock includes septic shock caused by infection; treated with antibiotics and addressing underlying conditions. What is neurogenic shock and its treatment? Caused by spinal injury, anesthesia, or depressant medication; treated by stabilizing the spine, airway management, and administering atropine and vasopressors. What is anaphylactic shock and how is it treated? It is an antigen/antibody reaction; treated with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine. What is DIC and its management? Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a complication of both clotting and bleeding; management includes blood products and replacing clotting factors.
What defines multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? Severe organ dysfunction of at least two organ systems; treatment aims to control the initiating event and promote perfusion. What are the signs and treatment for sepsis? Signs include increased temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate; treatment includes fluids, pressors, antibiotics, and oxygen. What are the types of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- Pre-renal: decreased tissue perfusion; 2. Intrarenal: direct kidney injury; 3. Post- renal: obstruction of urine flow. What are the signs and symptoms of acute AKI? Signs include increased creatinine, decreased GFR and urine output, nausea/vomiting, headache, azotemia, hematuria, oliguria, anuria, and hyper/hypokalemia. How is hyperkalemia treated? Treatment includes dietary restrictions, calcium gluconate, dextrose, insulin, and medications like albuterol or sodium polystyrene.
It functions as an artificial kidney to remove waste and can be accessed via a fistula or graft. What are the signs of peritoneal dialysis complications? Signs include abdominal distension, board-like pain, hypertension, and cloudy drainage indicating peritonitis. What is the appearance of Crohn's disease? Cobblestone appearance with patches of inflammation. What type of inflammation is characteristic of Ulcerative Colitis? Continuous inflammation and ulcers. What are common symptoms of Crohn's disease? RLQ pain, steatorrhea, abscess, strictures, fistulas, fissures. What are the hallmark symptoms of Ulcerative Colitis? Bloody diarrhea, urgency, intermittent tenesmus.
How deep does Ulcerative Colitis affect the intestinal layers? It extends through all layers but primarily affects the superficial mucosa. What laboratory tests are used for diagnosing Crohn's and Ulcerative Colitis? H&H (hemoglobin), WBC, electrolytes, inflammation markers (ESR & CRP), stool sample, CT scan, colonoscopy. Why is colonoscopy contraindicated during a flare-up of Ulcerative Colitis? There is a risk for perforation. What is the 'lead pipe sign' in Ulcerative Colitis? A severe finding during a barium enema indicating a loss of haustral markings. What are the primary management strategies for Crohn's and Ulcerative Colitis? Reduce inflammation, use immunomodulators, corticosteroids, aminosalicylates, fluids, and antibiotics.
