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A series of graded exams with questions and answers related to pathophysiology. The questions cover topics such as cell proliferation, differentiation, necrosis, tissue types, and disease prevention. The document also includes multiple-choice questions and definitions of medical terms. The exams are graded A+.
Typology: Exams
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Module 1 Exam Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: A bodybuilder’s muscles will display hyperplasia. True Correct! False It will display hypertrophy. Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia. True Correct! False It’s metaplasia. Question 3 0 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells You Answered True Correct Answer False Question 4 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. Correct! True
Oxygen Glucose Correct Answer Water Correct! Carbon dioxide Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following are false regarding cell communication? Endocrine signaling depends on hormones Neurotransmitters act through synapses G-protein linked receptors act through an on-off switch Correct! Paracrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply. Correct! It controls shape and movement Correct! Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Question 10 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice High blood pressure is an example of which of the following? Pathology Correct Answer
Pathophysiology Physiology You Answered No answer text provided. Question 11 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice A patient has a fever and rash. What are these examples of? Correct! Signs Symptoms Both A & B Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is true of a test’s sensitivity? It is how likely the same result will occur if repeated Correct! If negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease It is considered a true-negative result It can only be calculated from people without the disease Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which of the following is the effect of an illness on one’s life? Incidence Correct! Morbidity
liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 17 10 / 10 pts Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answers may be used more than once. (1 point each) Sunburn a. Physical agents Obesity b. Radiation injury Reactive oxygen species c. Chemical injury Low oxygen to tissues d. Biologic agents Fractures e. Nutritional imbalances OTC drugs f. Free radical injury Hypothermia g. Hypoxic cell injury Radiation treatment Lead toxicity Bacteria Question 18 10 / 10 pts List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Your Answer: Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous Epithelial tissue covers the body's outer surface, lines inner surfaces, forms glandular tissue. It is avascular and can be squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. An example of this type of tissue is our skin. Muscle tissue functions to move our bones, pump blood through the heart, as well as contract blood vessels. Cardiac muscle tissue is an example of muscle tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying
basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests. Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue. The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments. Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment. The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons. Question 19 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the most studied active transport system in the human body? Your Answer: The most studied active transport system is the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump. This pumo moves sodium from inside the cell to outside region, returning potassium to the inside of the cell. If this did not occur, sodium would remain in the cell, water would follow resulting in the cell to swell. Sodium-potassium (Na+/K+)-ATPase pump Question 20 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? Your Answer: Active transport Active transport Question 21 2.5 / 2.5 pts Give one function of a membrane potential: Your Answer: Generate nerve impulses Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion Question 22 2.5 / 2.5 pts What is the term that describes a transport protein to help lipid soluble or large molecules pass through the membrane, that otherwise would not be able to get through? Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion facilitated diffusion
Question 5 10 / 10 pts
Neutropenia- risk for infections Anemia- causing fatigue Thrombocytopenia- risk for bleeding** Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True Correct! False False, cell differentiation Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True Correct! False False, cell proliferation Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Your Answer: Stem cells possess self-renewal and potency. Self renewal means that they can undergo mitotic divisions while maintaining undifferentiated state. Potency is the differentiation potential of stem cells. Potency and self-renewal
Question 9 0 / 2.5 pts Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? You Answered Muscle Bone Correct Answer Epithelial Neural Question 10 4 / 4 pts What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it? Your Answer: Angiogenesis is the development of new blood vessels within the tumor. In order to continue growing, it must establish blood vessels and growth factors. development of new blood vessels within the tumor. They need it to continue to grow. Question 11 3 / 3 pts What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer: Proto-oncogenes and Tumor suppressor genes protooncogenes Question 12 1 / 3 pts What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer: It is a gene that codes for a protein that inhibits cell growth and signals apoptosis. An example is p53. Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP Question 13 10 / 10 pts Determine if the tumor is benign or malignant based on the nomenclature: Papilloma Lipoma Leiomyosarcoma Hemangioma Adenocarcinoma Neuroblastoma Adenoma Melanoma
Grows by expansion Gains access to blood and lymph channels Correct! Growth may stop or regress Question 16 3 / 3 pts What are the genetic events that can lead to cancer? Select all that apply. Correct! Gene amplification Pleomorphism Correct! Point mutation Seeding Correct! Chromosomal translocation Question 17 4 / 4 pts List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Your Answer:
Question 19 3.5 / 3.5 pts Which of the following are risk factors for developing cancer? Select all that apply. Correct! HBV Correct! Alcohol Correct! High intake of smoked meats Deodorant Question 20 3.5 / 3.5 pts All of the following viral agents are correctly paired with the associated lesion except: Human papillomavirus (HPV): genital warts Correct! Epstein-Barr virus: carcinoma of the cervix Epstein Barr is linked to Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal cancer. Cervical carcinoma is linked to HPV. Hepatitis B virus: hepatocellular carcinoma Human herpes virus-8: Kaposi sarcoma Question 21 3 / 3 pts List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Your Answer: Observation: skin Palpation: breast Lab test: Pap smear Observation: skin, mouth, external genitalia Palpation: breast, thyroid, rectum and anus, prostate, lymph nodes Laboratory tests and procedures: Pap smear, colonoscopy, mammography MODULE 3 Question 1 5 / 5 pts Short answer
2 / 2 pts Multiple Choice: Which immunoglobulin passes immune factors from the mother to the fetus? IgM IgA Correct! IgG IgD IgE Question 6 2 / 2 pts Multiple Choice: Which cell type is an early responder and the most abundant in the body? Lymphocytes Eosinophils Basophils Correct! Neutrophils Question 7 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which is NOT a finding consistent with Graves’ disease? Exophthalmos Correct! Hypothyroidism hyperthyroidism Goiter
Corneal ulceration Question 8 10 / 10 pts A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Your Answer:
Correct! Type I Type II Type III Type IV Question 16 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which cell is NOT part of the adaptive immune response? Correct! Monocytes Lymphocytes Antigen presenting cells Effector cells Question 17 3.5 / 3.5 pts Multiple Choice: The body’s ability to distinguish self from nonself is termed what? Autoantibodies Positive selection Correct! Self-tolerance Anergy Question 18 5 / 5 pts Short answer: What are autoantibodies? Your Answer:
In autoimmune diseases, the immune sustem loses its ability to recognize self and produces autoantibodies, which act against host tissues Answer: In many autoimmune diseases, the immune system loses its ability to recognize self and produces what is called autoantibodies, which act against host tissues. Question 19 10 / 10 pts Short answer A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man’s CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/μL and his viral load is 250, copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why? Your Answer:
