Download NUR 502 - ADVANCED PATHO| QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2025-2026 | GRADED A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NUR 502 - ADVANCED PATHO| QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | 2025-2026 | GRADED A+
During times of increasing blood volume such as in heart failure, a compensatory renal response is: A) afferent arteriole vasoconstriction and efferent arteriole vasodilation to promote reabsorption of fluid. B) release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to diuresis. C) inhibition of atrial and brain natriuretic peptides to prevent fluid retention. D) increase in antidiuretic hormone release which promotes diuresis. B) release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to diuresis. A 70-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty with activities of daily living such as eating and dressing herself. She also states that she sometimes is incontinent of urine because she has trouble walking to the bathroom because of pain and getting her underwear off quickly enough. The type of incontinence she is describing is: A) gross. B) mixed. C) stress. D) functional. D) functional.
A mother is concerned about her 5-year-old son wetting his bed at night. She says he has rarely had a "dry" night and during the day he does not have accidents. What is the most likely cause of this enuresis? A) Urine infection B) Reduced antidiuretic hormone response C) Normal delay in voiding control maturation D) Detrusor overstretching from holding his urine during the daytime C) Normal delay in voiding control maturation Which of the following is an accurate description of a flaccid bladder? A) The bladder is generally overactive with frequency and urgency. B) It is often the result of central nervous system disorders such as a stroke. C) Damage to the innervation from the bladder to the spinal cord causes detrusor areflexia. D) There are mainly problems with the storage of urine. C) Damage to the innervation from the bladder to the spinal cord causes detrusor areflexia. Escherichia coli is a common organism implicated in uncomplicated urinary tract infections because:
C) Computerized tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis Stones form in the kidney as a result of: A) excessive dietary calcium, which increases oxalate binding. B) increased concentration of insoluble salts in the urine. C) increased levels of citrate and magnesium. D) a loss of integrity in the bladder lining causing a Hunner plaque. B) increased concentration of insoluble salts in the urine. A mother brings in her 4-year-old daughter because she felt a "lump" on her abdomen and she feels her daughter's belly is swollen. The mother states her daughter is pretty healthy but has been stating that her stomach hurts on and off. Physical exam reveals a nontender abdominal mass that is firm and does not cross the midline. Based on this presentation, a possible diagnosis is: A) polycystic kidney disease. B) dysplastic kidney. C) nephroblastoma. D) renal cell carcinoma. C) nephroblastoma.
Which of the following is the most common risk factor associated with the development of bladder cancer? A) Chronic urinary infections B) Excessive analgesic use C) Obesity D) Smoking D) Smoking Causes of painless, asymptomatic hematuria include: A) urolithiasis B) urothelial cell carcinoma C) acute cystitis D) renal cell carcinoma E) urothelial cell carcinoma and renal cell carcinoma E) urothelial cell carcinoma and renal cell carcinoma Discharge teaching is done for the patient after a nephrectomy for renal carcinoma. Which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective? A) Because renal carcinoma usually affects both kidneys, I'll need to be watched closely.
The cause of a decreased glomerular filtration rate in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is due to the development of: A) podocyte proliferation. B) small vessel thrombosis. C) albumin that gets trapped in the loop of Henle. D) collagen and fibrin deposits that develop into crescents. D) collagen and fibrin deposits that develop into crescents. A patient has stage V chronic kidney disease, and his family explains he is becoming progressively confused. Uremic encephalopathy is suspected. What other manifestations would support this complication? A) Asterixis and hyperreflexia B) Bone pain and fracture C) Nausea and vomiting D) Peripheral neuropathy and restless leg syndrome A) Asterixis and hyperreflexia
A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has tall, peaked T waves on his electrocardiogram (ECG). Which of the following is the best action? A) Repeat the ECG. B) Check the serum potassium level. C) Prepare to give sodium bicarbonate to correct the acidosis. D) Nothing. This is a normal finding for individuals with ESRD. B) Check the serum potassium level. Patients with chronic kidney disease may require: A) higher levels of insulin to control their blood sugar. B) lower levels of insulin to control their blood sugar. C) glucagon to prevent hypoglycemia. D) dialysis to clear insulin from the blood. B) lower levels of insulin to control their blood sugar. The sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) on a laboratory analysis is a reflection of the amount of: A) unbound testosterone in body tissues. B) free testosterone in body tissues. C) bound testosterone in body tissues. D) biologically active testosterone in body tissues.
A) thick and drier. B) scant amount but slippery. C) clear, slippery, and stretchy. D) whitish and inelastic. C) clear, slippery, and stretchy. Implantation of the zygote usually occurs __________ after fertilization. A) immediately B) less than 1 day C) 1-2 days D) approximately 5-6 days D) approximately 5-6 days Human chorionic gonadotropin is generally detected in some pregnancy tests, and a positive result reflects pregnancy. What is the purpose of this hormone during pregnancy A) It stimulates corpus luteum to produce estrogen and progesterone. B) It stimulates follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone production. C) It inhibits estrogen and progesterone. D) It stimulates inhibin to suppress follicle-stimulating hormone.
A) It stimulates corpus luteum to produce estrogen and progesterone. Declining estrogen levels that occur with menopause can cause which of the following manifestations? A) Vaginal atrophy B) Decreased bone density C) Increased vaginal lubrication D) Increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and decreased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) E) Both vaginal atrophy and decreased bone density E) Both vaginal atrophy and decreased bone density What education should be provided to parents who have a son with an undescended testis? A) Most testis will descend by 18 months. B) Undescended testes do not alter fertility. C) Later in life, he could be at risk for testicular cancer. D) The only treatment is to remove the undescended testis. C) Later in life, he could be at risk for testicular cancer.
A father brought his son to the emergency room because he has a painful erection that is not abating. His son has sickle cell anemia. He is diagnosed with priapism. How does sickle cell lead to priapism? A) Too much blood is shunted to the corpus cavernosum. B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis. C) There is an increase in nitric oxide, which increases blood flow. D) The sickled red blood cells cause trauma to the shaft. B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis. A man has been complaining that his scrotum sometimes feels heavy, and it seems to get worse as the day progresses. He says it's not too bothersome. An ultrasound is done and reveals the presence of a small hydrocele. You would explain that: A) surgery is almost always necessary to remove the fluid. B) he is at increased risk for testicular cancer. C) most hydroceles go away on their own. D) an inguinal hernia is the caus. C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
A 14-year-old boy was playing soccer and developed sudden acute testicular pain. He is at the emergency room. Clinical exam reveals a very painful, swollen, left testis. The most likely cause of this testicular pain is: A) testicular cancer. B) cryptorchidism. C) varicocele. D) testicular torsion. D) testicular torsion. A cause of testicular torsion includes: A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum. B) a long spermatic cord. C) the testicle is in a longitudinal position. D) epididymitis. A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum. Structural uterine disorders that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding include: A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids). B) thyroid disorders. C) medications such as hormones. D) coagulopathy.
C) only occurs in menopausal women. D) is usually a disorder in young women. A) may manifest as a rapidly enlarging, firm fixed uterus. Functional ovarian cysts develop as a result of: A) the nondominant follicle getting reabsorbed. B) an enlarged corpus luteum. C) the dominant follicle retaining fluid rather than releasing the egg. D) a lack of fertilization. C) the dominant follicle retaining fluid rather than releasing the egg. Most women with polycystic ovarian syndrome have: A) decreased sensitivity to luteinizing hormone. B) excessive stimulation of follicle-stimulating hormone. C) functional ovarian hyperandrogenism. D) decreased gonadotropin-releasing hormone. C) functional ovarian hyperandrogenism. The four different phenotypes to describe polycystic ovarian syndrome include which of the following?
A) Infertility B) Amenorrhea C) Hyperandrogenism D) Oligo-anovulation E) Hyperandrogenism and oligo-anovulatio E) Hyperandrogenism and oligo-anovulatio A 30-year-old woman had an ultrasound of her breast done due to complaints of a firm solid mass on her right breast. The findings of the ultrasound conclude that the mass is a simple fibroadenoma. What education should she be provided pertaining to this fibroadenoma? A) This mass is not associated with an increased risk of cancer. B) There is a very slight increase risk in this mass becoming cancer. C) There is a high risk of this mass becoming cancer. D) This type of mass is considered a ductal carcinoma in situ. A) This mass is not associated with an increased risk of cancer. A 30-year-old man is complaining of dysuria, chills, fever, and muscle aching. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 101°F. He denies being sexually active for the past year. The physical examination was unremarkable except for the digital rectal exam, which reveals a very tender prostate. What is the treatment strategy
A patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea. What should be included in the teaching plan? A) You are only infectious if the lesions are draining. B) You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms C) You will require several weeks of antibiotic treatment. D) You are restricted from engaging in sexual activity until your blood tests are negative. B) You are contagious even if you have no outward symptoms Which of the following sexually transmitted infections frequently coexists with gonorrhea? A) Syphilis B) Herpes simplex virus C) Chlamydia D) Chancroid C) Chlamydia Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is indicated by a patient who has small, painful, vesicular lesions that heal in 10 to 20 days?
A) Genital herpes B) Chancroid C) Syphilis D) Gonorrhea A) Genital herpes When assessing a woman with possible gonorrhea, __________ is of most concern. A) odorous vaginal discharge B) abdominal tenderness C) painful urination D) anal itching B) abdominal tenderness A reduction in Lactobacillus in the vaginal flora results in: A) a lower vaginal pH B) increased microbicide activity C) a higher vaginal pH D) a high production of hydrogen peroxide. C) a higher vaginal pH
