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NUR 2502 MDC 3 Final Exam: Cardiovascular and Hematology, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive final exam for nur 2502 mdc 3, focusing on cardiovascular and hematological concepts. it includes multiple-choice questions covering various aspects of hypertension, skin disorders, surgical procedures, and postoperative care. The questions assess knowledge of modifiable risk factors, disease processes, nursing interventions, and patient safety protocols. This resource is valuable for nursing students preparing for exams.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/30/2025

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NUR 2502 MDC 3 FINAL EXAM||2025-2026||CARDIOVASCULAR
AND HEMATOLOGY/GRADED A+||RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks how to
decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems. What
risk factor is modifiable by the client?
a.
Age
b.
Impaired renal function
c.
Family history
d. Dyslipid emia
2.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with
secondary hypertension. Which condition contributes to the
development of secondary hypertension?
a. Hepati c function
b. Renal disease
c.
Calcium deficit
d.
Acid-based imbalance
3.
A client experiences orthostatic hypotension while receiving
furosemide to treat hypertension. How will the nurse
intervene?
a.
Administer I.V. fluids as order ed.
b.
Administer an isosorbide as ord ered.
c.
Insert an indwelling urinary catheter as ord ered.
d.
Instruct the client to sit for several minutes before sta nding .
4.
A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks what to do
to decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems.
Which risk factor is not modifiable by the client?
a.
Age
b.
Obesity
c.
Inactivi ty
d.
Dyslipidemia
5.
A nurse working in the clinic is seeing a client who has just
been prescribed a new medication for hypertension. The
client asks why hypertension is sometimes called the "silent
killer." What is the best response by the nurse?
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Download NUR 2502 MDC 3 Final Exam: Cardiovascular and Hematology and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR 2502 MDC 3 FINAL EXAM||2025-2026||CARDIOVASCULAR

AND HEMATOLOGY/GRADED A+||RASMUSSEN COLLEGE

1. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks how to

decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems. What

risk factor is modifiable by the client?

a. Age b. Impaired renal function c. Family history d. Dyslipidemia

The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with

secondary hypertension. Which condition contributes to the

development of secondary hypertension?

a. Hepatic function b. Renal disease c. Calcium deficit d. Acid-based imbalance

A client experiences orthostatic hypotension while receiving

furosemide to treat hypertension. How will the nurse

intervene?

a. Administer I.V. fluids as ordered. b. Administer an isosorbide as ordered. c. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter as ordered. d. Instruct the client to sit for several minutes before standing.

A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks what to do

to decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems.

Which risk factor is not modifiable by the client?

a. Age b. Obesity c. Inactivity d. Dyslipidemia

A nurse working in the clinic is seeing a client who has just

been prescribed a new medication for hypertension. The

client asks why hypertension is sometimes called the "silent

killer." What is the best response by the nurse?

a. "Hypertension often causes no symptoms." b. "Hypertension often kills early in the disease process." c. "Hypertension often causes no pain." d. "Hypertension is difficult to diagnose."

The nurse assesses a patient with silvery-white, thick scales

on the scalp, elbows, and hand that bleed when picked off.

What does the nurse suspect that this patient may have?

a. Vitiligo b. Psoriasis c. Melanoma d. Petechia

Which of the following could be a possible cause of

cyanosis?

a. Carbon monoxide poisoning b. Fever c. Anemia d. Low tissue oxygenation

Which of the following is the most common complaint

related to a diagnosis of head lice?

a. Flaking of scalp b. Itching c. Swelling d. Headache

Which of the following superficial fungal infections begins in

the skin between the toes and spreads to the soles of the

feet?

a. Tinea corporis b. Tinea capitis c. Tinea pedis d. Tinea cruris

A client has been diagnosed with shingles. Which of the

following medication classifications will reduce the severity

and prevent development of new lesions?

a. Antiviral b. Corticosteroids c. Analgesics d. Antipyretics

The nurse teaches the client who demonstrates herpes

zoster (shingles) that

a. once the client has had shingles, they will not have it a second time. b. a person who has had chickenpox can contract it again upon exposure to a person with shingles. c. the infection results from reactivation of the chickenpox virus. d. no known medications affect the course of shingles.

1. In which instance may a surgeon operate without informed

consent?

a. Invasive procedures b. Emergency situations c. Procedures requiring sedation d. Radiologic procedures

The nurse is completing a preoperative assessment. The

nurse notices the client is tearful and constantly wringing

their hands. The client states, “I’m really nervous about this

surgery. Do you think it will be ok?” What is the

nurse’s best response?

a. “You have nothing to worry about; you have the best surgical team.” b. “No one has ever died from the procedure you are having.” c. “What family support do you have after the surgery?” d. “What are your concerns?”

The nurse is educating a client scheduled for elective

surgery. The client currently takes aspirin daily. What

education should the nurse provide with regard to this

medication?

a. Continue to take the aspirin as ordered. b. Take half doses of the aspirin until 1 week after surgery. c. Aspirin should be increased until 3 days before surgery, then it should be

discontinued until 3 days after surgery. d. Stop taking the aspirin 7 days before the surgery, unless otherwise directed by your physician.

What is the major purpose of withholding food and fluid

before surgery?

a. Prevent overhydration b. Decrease urine output c. Prevent aspiration d. Decrease risk of constipation

During the admission history the client reports to the nurse

of taking the usual dose of warfarin the previous day. What

is an appropriate nursing action?

a. Notify the surgeon that the client took warfarin the day before surgery. b. No action is needed, because the client takes warfarin on a continuing basis. c. Put a note on the preoperative checklist before sending the client into surgery. d. Tell the client to inform the circulating nurse before the anesthesia is administered.

The nurse is aware that a religious group that refuses blood

transfusions for religious reasons is:

a. Catholics b. Jehovah's Witnesses c. Jews d. Methodists

The nurse is monitoring a presurgical patient for electrolyte

imbalance. Which classification of medication may cause

electrolyte imbalance?

a. Corticosteroids b. Diuretics c. Phenothiazines d. Insulin

The nurse is aware that which of the following nutrients

promotes normal blood clotting?

a. Magnesium b. Vitamin C c. Zinc

a. Supine b. Semi-Fowler's c. Side-lying, knees to chest d. Trendelenburg

It is important for the nurse to assist a postsurgical client to

sit up and turn the head to one side when vomiting in order

to

a. maximize comfort. b. avoid dizziness. c. avoid aspiration. d. help eliminate inhaled anesthetics.

The client complains of weakness and dizziness as the nurse

assists the client to sit on the side of the bed. The nurse

recognizes the client is experiencing:

a. acute pain b. anxiety c. incisional pain d. orthostatic hypotension

A client who had abdominal surgery 4 days ago reports that

"something gave way" when he sneezed. The nurse observes

a wound evisceration. Which nursing action is the first

priority?

a. Applying a sterile, moist dressing b. Monitoring vital signs c. Inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube d. Putting the client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status

What intervention by the nurse is most effective for

reducing hospital-acquired infections?

a. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics b. Aseptic wound care c. Control of upper respiratory tract infections d. Proper hand-washing techniques

Which action should a nurse perform to prevent deep vein

thrombosis when caring for a postsurgical client?

a. Reinforce the need to perform leg exercises every hour when awake b. Massage the calves or thighs c. Instruct the client to cross the legs or prop a pillow under the knees d. Maintain bed rest

A client has undergone surgery to repair a hernia, with no

complications. In the immediate postoperative period, which

action by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes b. Measure arterial blood gas every 5 minutes c. Measure urinary output every 15 minutes d. Assess pupillary response every 5 minutes

Which of the following sets of clinical data would allow the

nurse to conclude that the nursing actions taken to prevent

postoperative pneumonia have been effective?

a. Vital signs within normal limits; absence of chills and cough b. Alert and oriented; peripheral pulses present and strong c. Bladder non—distended; Foley catheter draining clear, yellow urine d. Bowel sounds present and active; denies nausea and vomiting

A client receiving moderate sedation for a minor surgical

procedure begins to vomit. What should the nurse do first?

a. Roll the client onto his or her side. b. Suction the mouth. c. Provide a basin. d. Administer an antiemetic medication.

A nurse is monitoring a client recovering from moderate

sedation that was administered during a colonoscopy. Which

finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

a. Heart rate of 84 beats/minute

The nurse caring for a client receiving a transfusion notes

that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells

(PRBCs) has begun, the client is having difficulty breathing

and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most

appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?

a. Notify the client's health care provider b. Stop the transfusion immediately. c. Remove the client's IV access. d. Assess the client's chest sounds and vital signs.

The nurse begins a routine blood transfusion of packed red

blood cells (PRBCs) at 1100. To ensure client safety, the unit

of blood should be completely transfused by what time?

a. 1115 b. 1500 c. 1530 d. 1600

For a client diagnosed with pernicious anemia, the nurse

emphasizes the importance of lifelong administration of

a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Folic acid

The nurse is caring for four clients on the medical-surgical

unit of the hospital. What client is mostly likely to be

receiving treatment for sickle cell crisis?

a. A 29 - year-old Caucasian male b. A 19 - year-old African American male c. A 24 - year-old Native American female d. A 36 - year-old Eastern European female

Which type of hemolytic anemia is categorized as inherited

disorder?

d. Vitamin B 12

a. Sickle cell anemia b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia c. Cold agglutinin disease d. Hypersplenism

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a

hemoglobin of 9.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 34%. To

determine where the blood loss is coming from, what

intervention can the nurse provide?

a. Observe stools for blood. b. Observe the gums for bleeding after the client brushes teeth. c. Observe the sputum for signs of blood. d. Observe client for facial droop.

16. While assessing a client, the nurse will recognize what

as the most obvious sign of anemia?

a. Pallor b. Tachycardia c. Flow murmurs d. Jaundice

A client diagnosed with a cataract comes into the clinic.

What assessments should the nurse observe in this client?

a. A burning sensation and the sensation of an object in the eye b. Blurred or cloudy visual image c. Inability to produce sufficient tears d. A swollen lacrimal caruncle

A colleague has been splashed in the eye with cleaning

solution. Which of the following would be the priority?

a. Finding out what the substance was b. Irrigating the eye immediately with tap water c. Covering the eye with a clean sterile dressing d. Instilling a local anesthetic into the eye

Which of the following eye disorders is caused by an

elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)?

The nurse caring for a client with Ménière's disease needs to

assist with what when the client is experiencing an attack?

a. Sleeping b. ADLs c. Coughing d. URIs

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client

admitted for evaluation for Ménière's disease?

a. Acute pain related to vertigo b. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to nausea and vomiting c. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to vomiting d. Risk for injury related to vertigo

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with

Meniere's disease and identifies a nursing diagnosis of

excess fluid volume related to fluid retention in the inner

ear. Which intervention would be most appropriate to

include in the plan of care?

a. Limit foods that are high in sodium. b. Encourage intake of caffeinated fluids. c. Administer prescribed antihistamine. d. Restrict high-potassium foods.

A patient is scheduled for a test with contrast to determine

kidney function. What statement made by the patient should

the nurse inform the physician about prior to testing?

a. “I don’t like needles.” b. “I am allergic to shrimp.” c. “I take medication to help me sleep at night.” d. “I have had a test similar to this one in the past.”

Which term describes painful or difficult urination?

a. Oliguria

b. Anuria c. Nocturia d. Dysuria

When the bladder contains 400 to 500 mL of urine, this is

referred to as

a. anuria. b. specific gravity. c. functional capacity. d. renal clearance.

When fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine

should be:

a. 1. b. Less than 1. c. Greater than 1. d. 1.010 to 1.

The nurse is teaching a client with recurrent urinary tract

infections (UTIs) ways to decrease risk for additional UTIs.

The nurse includes which information?

a. Take tub baths instead of showers. b. Void immediately after sexual intercourse. c. Increase intake of coffee, tea, and colas. d. Void every 5 hours during the day.

Which client is at highest risk for developing a hospital-

acquired infection?

a. A client with a laceration to the left hand b. A client who's taking prednisone (Deltasone) c. A client with an indwelling urinary catheter d. A client with Crohn's disease

The nurse is caring for a patient with dementia in the long-

term care facility when the patient has a change in cognitive

loss, and fever. Which condition in the family history is most

pertinent to the client's current health problem?

a. Ulcerative colitis b. Hypertension c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Appendicitis

Crohn's disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by

which pathophysiological process?

a. Inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa b. Infectious disease c. Disaccharidase deficiency d. Gastric resection

It is important for the nurse to monitor serum electrolytes in

a patient with acute diarrhea. Select the electrolyte result

that should be immediately reported.

a. Chloride of 100 mEq/L b. Sodium of 136 mEq/L c. Calcium of 9 mg/dL d. Potassium of 2.8 mEq/L

40. The nurse is admitting a client with a diagnosis of

diverticulitis and assesses that the client has a board-like

abdomen, no bowel sounds, and reports of severe abdominal

pain. What is the nurse's first action?

a. Start an IV with lactated Ringer’s solution. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Administer a retention enema. d. Administer an opioid analgesic.

The nurse teaches a client scheduled for a colonoscopy.

Which instruction should be included as part of the

preparation for the procedure?

a. Consume at least 3 quarts of water 30 minutes before the test. b. Do not void for at least 30 minutes before the test. c. Follow the dietary and fluid restrictions and bowel preparation procedures.

d. Spray or gargle with a local anesthetic.

The nurse is collecting a stool specimen from a patient.

What characteristic of the stool indicates to the nurse that

the patient may have an upper GI bleed?

a. Clay-colored b. Greasy and foamy c. Tarry and black d. Threaded with mucus

A client was diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which

vitamin cannot be absorbed without an intrinsic factor?

a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D

A client reports having red stools lately. What will the nurse

ask during assessment questioning?

a. "Have you been eating beets?" b. "Have you been drinking grape juice?" c. "Have you been eating spinach?" d. "Have you been taking an iron supplement?"

The nurse assesses bowel sounds and hears one to two

bowel sounds in 2 minutes. How should the nurse document

the bowel sounds?

a. normal b. hyperactive c. hypoactive d. absent

A nurse is caring for a client who needs a nasogastric (NG)

tube for a tube feeding. What is the safe method for the

a. Green color and texture b. Bright red blood in stool c. Black and tarry appearance d. Clay-like quality

Which of the following medications is classified as a proton

pump inhibitor (PPI)?

a. Omeprazole b. Nizatidine c. Cimetidine d. Famotidine

A client taking metronidazole for the treatment of H.

pylori states that the medication is causing nausea. What

teaching should the nurse provide to the client to alleviate

the nausea?

a. Discontinue the use of the medication. b. Ask the healthcare provider to prescribe another type of antibiotic. c. Take the medication with meals to decrease the nausea. d. Crush the medication and put it in applesauce.

A nurse is caring for a client who is undergoing a diagnostic

workup for a suspected gastrointestinal problem. The client

reports gnawing epigastric pain following meals and

heartburn. What would the nurse suspect this client has?

a. peptic ulcer disease b. ulcerative colitis c. appendicitis d. diverticulitis

A nurse is teaching a group of middle-aged men about

peptic ulcers. When discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers,

the nurse should mention:

a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking. b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking. c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure. d. alcohol abuse and smoking.

The nurse is conducting a community education class on

gastritis. The nurse includes that chronic gastritis caused

by Helicobacter pylori is implicated in which

disease/condition?

a. Pernicious anemia b. Systemic infection c. Peptic ulcers d. Colostomy

A client is in the hospital for the treatment of peptic ulcer

disease. The client reports vomiting and a sudden severe

pain in the abdomen. The nurse then assesses a board-like

abdomen. What does the nurse suspect these symptoms

indicate?

a. Ineffective treatment for the peptic ulcer b. A reaction to the medication given for the ulcer c. Gastric penetration d. Perforation of the peptic ulcer

57. When caring for a client with an acute exacerbation of a

peptic ulcer, the nurse finds the client doubled up in bed

with severe pain in the right shoulder. What is the initial

appropriate action by the nurse?

a. Notify the health care provider. b. Irrigate the client's NG tube. c. Place the client in the high-Fowler's position. d. Assess the client's abdomen and vital signs.

A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis and asks

the nurse what could have caused it. What is the best

response by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

a. “It can be caused by ingestion of strong acids.” b. “You may have ingested some irritating foods.” c. “Is it possible that you are overusing aspirin.” d. “It is a hereditary disease.” e. “It is probably your nerves.”