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NUR 2180 NUR2180 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice Final Exam | Questions And Correct Ans, Exams of Nursing

NUR 2180 NUR2180 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice Final Exam | Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

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NUR 2180 NUR2180 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice
Final Exam | Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism?
a) Kidney
b) Lungs
c) Liver
d) Stomach
The liver contains enzymes that metabolize most drugs, transforming them
into water-soluble compounds for excretion.
2. A nurse is administering a medication that has a narrow therapeutic index.
What is the nurse’s priority?
a) Administer medication quickly
b) Monitor therapeutic levels closely
c) Assess for signs of toxicity
d) Ignore minor side effects
Narrow therapeutic index drugs require close monitoring to avoid toxicity
because the effective dose is close to the toxic dose.
3. Which of the following routes of administration has the fastest absorption?
a) Oral
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intravenous (IV)
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NUR 2180 NUR2180 Pharmacology for Nursing Practice

Final Exam | Questions And Correct Answers (Verified

Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf

  1. Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism? a) Kidney b) Lungs c) Liver d) Stomach The liver contains enzymes that metabolize most drugs, transforming them into water-soluble compounds for excretion.
  2. A nurse is administering a medication that has a narrow therapeutic index. What is the nurse’s priority? a) Administer medication quickly b) Monitor therapeutic levels closely c) Assess for signs of toxicity d) Ignore minor side effects Narrow therapeutic index drugs require close monitoring to avoid toxicity because the effective dose is close to the toxic dose.
  3. Which of the following routes of administration has the fastest absorption? a) Oral b) Subcutaneous c) Intravenous (IV)

d) Intramuscular IV administration delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, providing immediate absorption and effect.

  1. A patient is prescribed digoxin. What electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity? a) Hypernatremia b) Hypercalcemia c) Hypokalemia d) Hypermagnesemia Low potassium levels enhance digoxin's effects and toxicity by increasing myocardial excitability.
  2. Which of the following is an example of a beta-2 adrenergic agonist? a) Propranolol b) Atenolol c) Albuterol d) Metoprolol Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in asthma or COPD.
  3. Which drug class is most commonly associated with ototoxicity? a) Penicillins b) Aminoglycosides c) Macrolides d) Sulfonamides

10.Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics? a) Hypertension b) Constipation c) Diarrhea d) Tachycardia Opioids slow GI motility, frequently causing constipation in patients. 11.What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose? a) Naloxone b) Atropine c) N-acetylcysteine (NAC) d) Flumazenil NAC replenishes glutathione, helping to detoxify the harmful metabolites of acetaminophen in the liver. 12.Which of the following drugs is classified as an ACE inhibitor? a) Losartan b) Lisinopril c) Metoprolol d) Amlodipine Lisinopril inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, reducing angiotensin II formation and lowering blood pressure. 13.A patient taking lithium should avoid which of the following? a) High sodium intake b) Caffeine c) Dehydration

d) Protein-rich diet Dehydration increases lithium reabsorption in the kidneys, raising risk of toxicity. 14.What is the primary reason to rotate injection sites for insulin administration? a) Reduce pain b) Improve absorption speed c) Prevent lipodystrophy d) Avoid infection Repeated injections in the same site can cause lipodystrophy, altering insulin absorption. 15.Which of these drugs is commonly used as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)? a) Ranitidine b) Famotidine c) Omeprazole d) Sucralfate Omeprazole blocks the proton pump in stomach lining cells, reducing acid secretion. 16.Which of the following is a common adverse effect of corticosteroids? a) Hypoglycemia b) Hyperglycemia c) Bradycardia d) Hypotension

20.What is the main adverse effect of aminoglycosides to monitor? a) Nephrotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity c) Cardiotoxicity d) Both a and c Aminoglycosides can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity but not cardiotoxicity; however, answer d is incorrect, so best is nephrotoxicity only. (Adjust to clarify: Best answer is a) Nephrotoxicity) 20 (Revised). What is the main adverse effect of aminoglycosides to monitor? a) Nephrotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity c) Cardiotoxicity d) Neurotoxicity a) Nephrotoxicity Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and require monitoring kidney function during therapy. 21.A patient is prescribed metformin. What is an important patient teaching point? a) Take with antacids b) Avoid dairy products c) Take with meals to reduce GI upset d) Avoid all fruits Metformin can cause GI upset; taking it with food helps minimize nausea and diarrhea.

22.Which of the following medications is contraindicated during pregnancy? a) Penicillin b) Warfarin c) Acetaminophen d) Insulin Warfarin is teratogenic and contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal hemorrhage and malformations. 23.Which class of drugs is most effective for treating acute asthma exacerbations? a) Beta blockers b) Beta-2 agonists c) ACE inhibitors d) Calcium channel blockers Beta-2 agonists cause bronchodilation and relieve acute bronchospasm in asthma. 24.Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by benzodiazepines? a) Dopamine b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) c) Serotonin d) Norepinephrine Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, producing sedation and anxiolysis. 25.Which drug requires monitoring of trough levels to prevent toxicity? a) Amoxicillin

c) Immunosuppression d) Bradycardia Corticosteroids suppress immune function, increasing risk of infections. 29.Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat tuberculosis? a) Ciprofloxacin b) Isoniazid c) Metronidazole d) Acyclovir Isoniazid is a first-line antitubercular agent. 30.Which electrolyte imbalance is a common side effect of thiazide diuretics? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypercalcemia d) Hyponatremia Thiazides cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. 31.What class of drugs does atropine belong to? a) Beta blockers b) Anticholinergics c) Diuretics d) ACE inhibitors Atropine blocks acetylcholine at parasympathetic sites, increasing heart rate and reducing secretions. 32.A patient on lithium therapy should have which lab monitored regularly? a) Blood glucose

b) Serum lithium levels c) Liver enzymes d) Serum calcium Monitoring lithium levels is crucial due to its narrow therapeutic index and risk of toxicity. 33.Which medication is used to reverse opioid overdose? a) Flumazenil b) Atropine c) Naloxone d) Protamine sulfate Naloxone competitively blocks opioid receptors, reversing respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose. 34.Which medication requires the patient to avoid consuming grapefruit juice? a) Metformin b) Lisinopril c) Simvastatin d) Furosemide Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4 enzyme, increasing simvastatin blood levels and risk of toxicity. 35.Which vitamin deficiency is associated with isoniazid therapy? a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

b) Haloperidol c) Lithium d) Diazepam Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia and other psychoses. 40.Which class of antibiotics inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis? a) Macrolides b) Aminoglycosides c) Beta-lactams d) Fluoroquinolones Beta-lactams like penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis causing cell lysis. 41.Which drug is used to treat anaphylaxis? a) Diphenhydramine b) Epinephrine c) Albuterol d) Epinephrine Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis because it reverses airway constriction and hypotension rapidly. 42.Which medication requires regular monitoring of liver function tests? a) Metformin b) Lisinopril c) Isoniazid d) Furosemide

Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver enzymes should be monitored regularly. 43.Which medication can cause a “disulfiram-like” reaction when taken with alcohol? a) Metronidazole b) Ciprofloxacin c) Metronidazole d) Amoxicillin Metronidazole inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. 44.Which medication is used as first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes? a) Glipizide b) Insulin c) Metformin d) Sitagliptin Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production. 45.Which medication is classified as a calcium channel blocker? a) Metoprolol b) Lisinopril c) Amlodipine d) Furosemide Amlodipine inhibits calcium influx into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

d) Allopurinol Allopurinol reduces uric acid production, preventing gout attacks. 50.Which of the following drugs is considered a controlled substance due to potential for abuse? a) Acetaminophen b) Ibuprofen c) Morphine d) Amoxicillin Morphine is an opioid analgesic with high potential for dependence and abuse. 51.Which medication is an example of a macrolide antibiotic? a) Ciprofloxacin b) Gentamicin c) Azithromycin d) Cephalexin Azithromycin is a macrolide that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. 52.A patient taking digoxin complains of visual disturbances and nausea. What is the nurse’s best action? a) Increase the dose b) Assess for digoxin toxicity c) Ignore symptoms d) Give antacids

Visual changes and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity and require immediate assessment. 53.Which drug class is primarily used to treat hypertension by relaxing vascular smooth muscle? a) Beta blockers b) ACE inhibitors c) Calcium channel blockers d) Diuretics Calcium channel blockers reduce calcium influx into smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and lowering blood pressure. 54.Which lab test is most important to monitor when a patient is on lithium? a) Serum potassium b) Serum calcium c) Serum lithium levels d) Blood glucose Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, so serum levels are needed to avoid toxicity. 55.What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose? a) Naloxone b) Flumazenil c) Atropine d) Protamine sulfate Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepine binding to GABA receptors, reversing sedation.

b) Block alpha receptors c) Block beta-adrenergic receptors d) Increase norepinephrine release Beta blockers competitively inhibit beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate and contractility. 60.Which of the following drugs can cause a hypertensive crisis if taken with tyramine-rich foods? a) SSRIs b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) c) Beta blockers d) ACE inhibitors MAOIs prevent breakdown of tyramine; accumulation causes dangerous hypertension. 61.Which medication is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis? a) Diphenhydramine b) Epinephrine c) Prednisone d) Albuterol Epinephrine rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation during anaphylaxis. 62.Which drug is commonly prescribed for the treatment of hypothyroidism? a) Methimazole b) Propylthiouracil c) Levothyroxine

d) Radioactive iodine Levothyroxine is synthetic T4 hormone used to replace deficient thyroid hormone. 63.Which medication is used to reverse warfarin overdose? a) Protamine sulfate b) Vitamin K c) Naloxone d) Flumazenil Vitamin K helps restore synthesis of clotting factors inhibited by warfarin. 64.A patient taking corticosteroids long term is at increased risk for: a) Hypoglycemia b) Weight loss c) Osteoporosis d) Bradycardia Corticosteroids decrease calcium absorption and increase bone resorption leading to osteoporosis. 65.Which drug class is most commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions? a) Beta blockers b) Tetracyclines c) ACE inhibitors d) Diuretics Tetracyclines can cause skin sensitivity to sunlight, leading to burns or rash.