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NTI Days 7 – 10
The purpose of these NTI days are to prepare you for the ACT. You will learn what types of questions
appear on the science ACT, analyze what the best strategies are for answering the questions, and use
these skills to answer some sample questions.
The following packet contains the following:
A description of the science ACT including the types of questions and strategies for answering
the question
4 sets of practice questions that contain different types of strategies.
Directions
Begin each NTI day by reading through to 2-page overview description of the ACT and strategies.
Using a sheet of paper. Answer the practice ACT questions for the NTI day. Number your paper in the
same way they are numbered in the packet. When doing this, time yourself and try to complete the work
in 15 minutes. If you take a little longer, that is OK. However, you are only allowed 15 minutes for the
same amount of work on the real ACT.
After you answer the questions, analyze the passages. For each passage do the following:
Determine whether the passage is a data representation, a research summary, or a conflicting
viewpoint.
Explain in a sentence how you know which type of passage it is.
Explain what strategies you applied in answering the questions for that passage.
Refer to the passage. You have to be diligent about referring to the passage. Your preread should have given you an idea of where
particular types of data can be found. Sometimes the questions themselves direct you to the right place.
Always refer to the passage and the question stem before selecting an answer.
Reading a graph. Look for increases and decreases in the data. Look for extreme high and low values in the data. Make sure to take
the scale of the graphs into consideration. Look out for points on the graph where the data pattern changes.
Reading a table. Look for trends in the data. Focus on what the columns and rows represent.
I can’t finish the test. If this describes you, try answering the 5 question passages by going directly to the questions. Don’t skim
read. This will save a little time.
The Questions
The four main kinds of questions you’ll encounter on the Data Representation and Research Summaries passages will ask you to:
Read the Chart. These questions ask you simply to identify information given on the chart and are perhaps the most
straightforward questions on the Science Reasoning Test. These questions are the equivalent of specific detail questions on
the Reading Test.
Use the Chart. Slightly more complicated than Read the Chart questions, these questions require that you use the
information given in the chart to determine other, unstated information. For example, some of these questions might ask
you to make an informed guess as to what would happen if one of the variables in an experiment changed.
Handle Graphs. For these questions, you will either have to translate the information in the charts into words or translate
words or numbers into a chart. Being able to manipulate and transform data in this way indicates that you understand
exactly what the given information in the passage means.
Take the Next Step. These questions ask you what the next step should be for research experiments. Generally, this type
of question will provide you with a goal for an experiment and the current scenario. You must decide the next step that
should be taken to achieve that goal. You can think of these questions as Big Picture questions that ask you to look at the
research or the experiment as a whole.
The questions on the Conflicting Viewpoints section are slightly different. We’ve divided them into three main categories: detail,
inference, and comparison.
Detail questions ask you to identify specific information from the arguments presented.
Inference questions ask you to draw out implied information from the arguments.
Comparison questions ask you to find and analyze similarities and differences between the arguments.
As you can see, the questions on Conflicting Viewpoints resemble questions on a Reading Test passage. In our section specifically
devoted to the Conflicting Viewpoints passage, we’ll discuss the similarities between the Conflicting Viewpoints and Reading Test
passages and how those similarities should affect your strategy.
http://www.sparknotes.com/testprep/books/act/chapter14section3.rhtml
ACT Strategies for Super Busy Students. KAPLAN.
SCIENCE REASONING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: This test includes seven passages, each followed by several questions. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. After you have selected your answer, fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer sheet. You should refer to the passages as often as necessary when answering the questions. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.
PASSAGE I
Some students performed three studies to measure the average speed on a flat surface of a remote-controlled car with different types of wheels. Each study was conducted indoors in a temperature-controlled room. A straight track was constructed and measured to be 75 feet long. The car’s travel time was measured from start to finish with a stop- watch. The temperature in the room was kept constant at 20 ◦^ F and the surface was returned to its original condition after each trial. No modifications were made to the car aside from changing the wheels, and the car’s batteries were fully charged before each trial.
Study 1 The students fitted the car with hard rubber wheels, which had deep treads, and placed it on the surface. One student started the car as another student simultaneously started the stopwatch. The student stopped the stopwatch as the car crossed the 75-foot mark. The students calculated the results of three separate trials and averaged the results (see Table 1).
Table 1
Trial Time (s) Speed (ft/s)
1 22.8 3. 2 23.2 3. 3 22.5 3.
Average: 22.8 3.
Study 2 The students repeated the procedure used in Study 1, except they fitted the car with soft rubber wheels, which were smooth and lacked treads. The results are shown in Table 2.
Table 2
Trial Time (s) Speed (ft/s)
1 57 1. 2 56.4 1. 3 56.7 1.
Average: 56.7 1.
Study 3 The students repeated the procedure used in Study 1, except they fitted the car with hard rubber wheels, which had studs imbedded into them instead of treads. The results are shown in Table 3.
Table 3
Trial Time (s) Speed (ft/s)
1 11.3 6. 2 11.6 6. 3 12.1 6.
Average: 11.7 6.
1. The fastest times resulted from using which wheels? A. The speeds remained constant. B. Hard rubber wheels with studs imbedded in them. C. Soft rubber wheels with no treads. D. Hard rubber wheels with deep treads.
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NTI Day 7
PRACTICE TEST 1 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 51
PASSAGE II
The ninth planet of our solar system, Pluto, was dis- covered in 1930. It is the smallest planet in the solar system, with a surface area more than 300 times smaller than Earth’s. Recently, Pluto’s categorization as a planet has been debated. Two scientists discuss whether Pluto is a planet or another celestial object.
Scientist 1 Pluto is most certainly a planet. Some astronomers have suggested that Pluto be stripped of its planetary status, argu- ing that it is more accurately categorized as an asteroid or comet. However, with a 1,413 mile diameter, Pluto is almost 1,000 times bigger than an average comet, and it does not have a tail of dust and gas as comets do. A planet can be described as a non-moon, sun-orbiting object that does not generate nuclear fusion and is large enough to be pulled into a spherical shape by its own gravity. Strictly by definition alone, Pluto is a planet. Pluto is clearly not a moon, as it does not orbit another planet. Although Pluto’s orbital path is irregular as compared with the other planets of the solar system, it undisputedly orbits the sun. Pluto does not gener- ate heat by nuclear fission, distinguishing it from a star. It is large enough to be pulled into a spherical shape by its own gravitational force, distinguishing it from either a comet or an asteroid.
Scientist 2 There are many facts about Pluto suggesting that it is actu- ally not a planet but a member of the Kuiper Belt, a group of sizable comets that orbit the sun beyond Neptune. First, Pluto is composed of icy material, as are the comets in the Kuiper Belt, while the other planets of the solar system fall into one of two categories: rocky or gaseous. The four inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are rocky planets; Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are gaseous. Pluto is neither rocky nor gaseous but has an icy composition. In addition, Pluto is much too small to be a planet. It is less than half the diameter of the next smallest planet, Mercury. The Earth’s moon is even larger than Pluto. Finally, the eccentricity of Pluto’s orbit indicates that it is not a planet. Pluto is generally considered the ninth planet, but for twenty years of its 249 year orbit, it is actually closer to the sun than is Neptune, making it the eighth planet during that period of time. This irregular orbit is shared by over seventy Kuiper Belt comets.
6. Which of the following phrases best describes the major point of difference between the two scientists’ viewpoints? F. The actual location of Pluto in the solar system. G. The length of Pluto’s orbit. H. The shape of Pluto. J. The classification of Pluto as a planet. 7. According to Scientist 2’s viewpoint, compared to other planets of the solar system, Pluto’s surface is: A. less icy. B. more icy. C. more gaseous. D. more rocky. 8. Scientist 1’s viewpoint indicates that Pluto differs from asteroids and comets in all of the following ways EXCEPT: F. Pluto can generate heat through nuclear fission. G. Pluto is pulled into a spherical shape by its own gravitational force. H. Asteroids and comets have a tail of gas and dust particles. J. Asteroids and comets are much smaller than Pluto. 9. The polar ice caps on Pluto’s surface melt one time dur- ing every 249-year orbit, exposing Pluto’s truly rocky surface, which is similar to that of Mars. Based on the information provided, this finding, if true, would most likely weaken the position(s) of: A. Scientist 1 only. B. Scientist 2 only. C. both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2. D. neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2. 10. With which of the following statements would both scientists most likely agree? F. The size of Pluto indicates that it could actually be a satellite of another planet. G. Pluto should be classified as neither a planet nor a comet; a new category is indicated. H. The surface composition of Pluto is irrelevant and should not be considered in its classification. J. Pluto’s erratic orbit differentiates it from all other planets in the solar system. 11. Scientist 1’s viewpoint would be weakened by which of the following observations, if true? A. Scientists have recently discovered a Kuiper Belt comet with a radius of almost 1,500 miles. B. Pluto only has one moon, Charon, which is half the size of Pluto. C. Planets can be distinguished from comets by the lack of gas and dust particles in the wake of their orbits. D. Comets and asteroids are capable of generating nuclear fission. 12. Which of the following statements best describes how Scientist 2 likens Pluto to a Kuiper Belt comet? F. Neither Pluto nor Kuiper Belt comets have identifi- able atmospheres. G. Neither Pluto nor Kuiper Belt comets are trailed by a cloud of gases and dust. H. Both Pluto and Kuiper Belt comets have similar eccentric orbital patterns. J. Both Pluto and Kuiper Belt comets are roughly half the size of the next smallest planet, Mercury.
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52 PRACTICE TEST 1 SCIENCE REASONING TEST
PASSAGE III
A solute is any substance that is dissolved in another substance, which is called the solvent. A student tested the solubility (a measure of how much solute will dissolve into the solvent) of six different sub- stances. The solubility of a substance at a given temperature is defined as the concentration of the dissolved solute that is in equilibrium with the solvent. Table 1 represents the concentration of dissolved sub- stances in 100 grams of water at various temperatures. The concentrations are expressed in grams of solute per 100 grams of water.
Table 1
Concentration of solute (g/100 g H 2 O)
Temp (◦C) KCl NaNO 3 HCl NH 4 Cl NaCl NH (^3)
0 28 72 83 29 37 90
20 33 86 72 37 37 55
40 39 105 63 46 38 36
60 45 125 55 55 38 23
80 51 145 48 66 39 14
100 57 165 43 77 40 8
13. According to Table 1, the concentrations of which of the following substances varies the least with temperature? A. HCl B. NH 3 C. NaCl D. KCl 14. The graph below best represents the relationship between concentration and temperature for which of the following substances?
F. HCl G. NaNO 3 H. NaCl J. KCl
15. The data shown in Table 1 support the conclusion that, for a given substance, as the temperature of the water increases, the amount of solute that can be dissolved: A. increases only. B. decreases only. C. varies, but there is a trend depending on the substance. D. varies, but with no particular trend. 16. According to Table 1, HCl would most likely have which of the following concentrations at 70◦C? F. 25.5 g/100g H 2 O G. 37.0 g/100g H 2 O H. 48.5 g/100g H 2 O J. 51.5 g/100g H 2 O 17. A scientist wants to dissolve at least 50 grams of NH 4 Cl in 100 g of water in order for the solution to be the proper concentration for use in an experiment. A rea- sonable minimum temperature for the solution would be: A. 25 ◦C B. 30 ◦C C. 35 ◦C D. 50 ◦C
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PRACTICE TEST 1 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 59
39. Based on the information in Table 2, which bacteria has the smallest growth range? A. Listeria monocytogenes. B. Micrococcus cryophilus. C. Streptococcus pneumoniae. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. 40. According to information provided in the passage, Listeria monocytogenes stop reproducing at what tem- perature? F. > 1 ◦C, but < 10 ◦C G. > 10 ◦C, but < 34 ◦C H. > 34 ◦C, but < 45 ◦C J. > 45 ◦C
STOP! This is the end of NTI Day 7!
SCIENCE REASONING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: This test includes seven passages, each followed by several questions. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. After you have selected your answer, fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer sheet. You should refer to the passages as often as necessary when answering the questions. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.
PASSAGE I
A number of different chemical elements are essential for the survival and growth of plants. The macronutrients — those nutrients required in the greatest quantity—are nitro- gen, phosphorus, and potassium. These macronutrients are only available in the soil and generally come from the decay of other plants. To enrich the soil and make more of these essential nutrients available, many people use fer- tilizers to supply plants with the nutrients they need to grow faster. Two botanists discuss whether inorganic or organic fertilizers are most optimal for plant growth.
Botanist 1 In addition to carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen avail- able in the water and the air, and other micronutrients, such as sulfur, calcium, and magnesium, plants also need the macronutrients nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium to thrive. The best way to supply the soil, and thus the plants, with the proper macronutrients is to apply organic fertiliz- ers, as opposed to commercial inorganic fertilizers. Organic nutrients include cow, poultry, horse, and sheep manures. Green manure—a crop that is grown for a specific period of time, then plowed and incorporated into the soil—and compost can also be used. Organic fertilization mimics the natural breakdown of organic material into nutrients for which the plants can use. In other words, organic fertil- izer provides a naturally slow release of nutrients as the organic material breaks down in the soil, reducing the like- lihood of over-fertilization. Organic fertilizers also improve soil structure in the long term and improve the ability of sandy soils to hold water, which is immensely important in arid climates. Commercial inorganic fertilizers, on the other hand, are often applied too heavily, damaging the roots of the plants. Inorganic fertilizers can also cause chemical imbalances in the soil because they can build up a toxic concentration of salts in the soil.
Botanist 2 Plant growth and survival depends on an adequate sup- ply of essential nutrients that cannot always be found in the soil. Inorganic commercial fertilizers have many benefits over organic fertilizers. The elements in inorganic fertil- izers have been thoroughly measured and tested, insuring that each application provides the appropriate amount of
nutrients to the plants, as opposed to the highly variable, and often unknown, nutrient content of organic fertilizers. Organic fertilizers are usually lower in nutrient content than inorganic fertilizers, requiring more of the organic material to be applied to achieve the same level of nutrient deliv- ery acquired from the application of smaller amounts of inorganic material. In addition, characteristics of organic fertilizer require application well in advance of need to ensure that the materials have broken down and can be used by the plant. Inorganic fertilizers, however, once applied, offer immediate availability of nutrients to plants for use. The likelihood of nitrogen depletion is another disadvantage of organic fertilizers. Organic material can cause a tempo- rary depletion of nitrogen in the soil and therefore in the plants that depend on it. Inorganic fertilizer use does not present this problem.
1. According to the passage, plants need the most of which of the following to grow and survive? A. Oxygen B. Fertilizer C. Micronutrients D. Macronutrients 2. Which of the following can be inferred from Botanist 2’s viewpoint about organic fertilizers? F. It is impossible to determine the proper amount of inorganic fertilizer to apply. G. The levels of essential macronutrients are closer to those that occur naturally. H. Organic fertilizers are useless in achieving and promoting plant growth. J. Organic fertilizers can reduce the amount of neces- sary nutrients in the soil.
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NTI Day 8
298 PRACTICE TEST 4 SCIENCE REASONING TEST
PASSAGE II
Certain species of flowers attract more bees than others with the scent of their pollen. The pollen is found on a struc- ture within the flower called the anther , which is located on top of another structure called the stamen. Flowers typically have multiple anthers and stamens. Bees carry the pollen from the flowers on their legs. The bees move from flower to flower while collecting pollen. Some of the pollen falls from their legs as they land on another flower. This depositing of pollen causes cross- pollination to occur (fertilization of the other flowers). Three studies were conducted to study this process.
Study 1 For two flower species (A and B), pollen quantity per anther in milligrams (mg), anther quantity per flower in number, and percentage of stamens covered with pollen were recorded (see Table 1).
Table 1
Flower species
Pollen quantity (mg) per anther
Anther quantity per flower
Stamens covered with pollen (%)
A 4.9 12 27
B 7.6 19 27
Study 2 Three study sites were established to determine the pollen collection rate of one species of bee for the flowers used in Study 1. In Site 1, Species A flowers were absent. In Site 2, Species B flowers were absent. In Site 3, both Species A and B flowers were absent. Two pollen containers were placed at each site: one con- taining 50 mg Species A pollen and one containing 50 mg Species B pollen. The containers were left in place for 36 hours and the amount of pollen that was taken from the containers was measured. The results are recorded in Table 2.
Table 2
Site Flower species absent
Amount of Pollen (mg) removed from dishes containing pollen from:
Species A Species B
1 A 26 13
2 B 12 35
3 A and B 2 4
Study 3 The researchers hand-pollinated flowers from a third species, Species C. They also observed the Species C plants being cross-pollinated by the bees in the area. All flowers were observed for 2 years. The scientists recorded the results in Table 3.
Table 3
Cross-pollination of Species C flowers
Results from:
Hand- pollinated flowers
Bee- pollinated flowers
Flowers that reproduced
Flowers reproducing after 1 year
Flowers reproducing after 2 years
Total flowers produced after 2 years
8. Based on the results of Study 3, one could generalize that compared to flowers pollinated by hand, flowers pollinated by bees resulted in: F. an overall increase in flower production. G. an overall decrease in flower production. H. increased number of flowers still reproducing after 2 years. J. decreased number of flowers still reproducing after 2 years. 9. Which of the following variables was controlled in the design of Study 2? A. The amount of pollen placed at each site B. The level of pollen on each flower C. The total amount of pollen removed by the bees from each site D. The number of bees present at each site 10. According to the results of the studies, Species A and Species B are most similar in that their: F. percentage of stamens covered with pollen is equiv- alent. G. anther quantity per flower is equivalent. H. pollen quantity per anther is equivalent. J. rate of cross-pollination after 2 years is equivalent.
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PRACTICE TEST 4 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 299
11. In Study 2, Site 3 was used to study the: A. pollen preference when Species A flowers only were present. B. pollen preference when both Species A and Species B flowers were missing. C. pollen preference when Species B flowers only were missing. D. pollen preference when both Species A and Species B flowers were present. 12. Which of the following is a weakness in the design of Study 2? F. Some species of flowers were not at both sites. G. Some species of bees were not present at both sites. H. The pollen could have been taken away by some- thing other than bees. J. The containers did not hold enough pollen for accurate measurements. 13. The results of Study 2 suggest that which of the fol- lowing factors most affects the flower preference of bees? A. Level of pollen count on the stamen. B. Location of the particular flower species within the area. C. Type of a particular flower species available in the area. D. Number of anthers on a flower.
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SCIENCE REASONING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: This test includes seven passages, each followed by several questions. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question. After you have selected your answer, fill in the corresponding bubble on your answer sheet. You should refer to the passages as often as necessary when answering the questions. You may NOT use a calculator on this test.
PASSAGE I
Scientists have observed rapid eutrophication of a local lake, at a rate much higher than that of other lakes in the area. Eutrophication is the aging of a lake, resulting in increased levels of plant life and accumulated sediments, brought on by a build-up of nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates. Rapid eutrophication is harmful, as it leads to the dying off of cold water fish such as trout. Researchers performed the following experiments to determine the possible source of the increased nitrates and phosphates.
Experiment 1 Scientists suspected that one source of nutrients was a feeder stream which intercepts run-off from farmland where pesticides and animal waste are found. Water samples were obtained over several days from that stream (Feeder A) as well as another feeder stream (Feeder B) not near the farm. Results are displayed in Table 1.
Table 1
Day Phosphate concentration (mg/L)
Nitrate concentration (mg/L)
Feeder A
Day 1 20.7 43.
Day 2 13.2 44.
Day 3 35.6 41.
Day 4 42.3 58.
Feeder B
Day 1 10.4 13.
Day 2 11.5 13.
Day 3 7.9 12.
Day 4 10.2 11.
Experiment 2 The scientists also surmised that another possible source of harmful nutrients entering the lake was run-off from a golf course adjacent to the lake where fertilizers were applied. Water samples were obtained from the lake at various dis- tances (0 meters, 100 meters and 200 meters) from the golf course on four successive days, and the levels of chloro- phyll, phosphates, and nitrates were measured. The results are depicted in Table 2.
Table 2
Day Chlorophyll level (PPB)
Phosphate concentration (mg/L)
Nitrate concentration (mg/L)
0 m
Day 1 38.9 35.6 52.
Day 2 39.1 42.3 48.
Day 3∗^ 38.8 46.9 70.
Day 4 40.2 57.0 61.
100 m
Day 1 30.3 31.8 42.
Day 2 29.0 29.4 36.
Day 3∗^ 29.2 30.1 45.
Day 4 30.4 37.9 44.
200 m
Day 1 26.5 25.3 33.
Day 2 26.8 24.6 33.
Day 3∗^ 26.4 25.5 34.
Day 4 27.0 24.2 35.
Note: *Fertilizer was applied to the golf course on the morning of Day 3.
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NTI Day 9
PRACTICE TEST 3 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 217
1. How do the designs of Experiments 1 and 2 differ in terms of sampling procedure? A. In Experiment 1, the lake water was tested, while in Experiment 2 feeder stream water was tested. B. In Experiment 2, lake water was tested, while run- off water was tested in Experiment 1. C. In Experiment 1, only phosphate concentration was tested, while in Experiment 2, only nitrate concentration was tested. D. In Experiment 2, chlorophyll level was tested in addition to phosphates and nitrates, while in Exper- iment 1, it was not. 2. What was the scientists’ hypothesis concerning lake eutrophication in Experiment 1? F. Run-off from farmland increases levels of phos- phates and nitrates, speeding up the eutrophication process. G. Fertilizer used on the golf course increases phos- phate and nitrate levels in lake water. H. Pesticides and animal waste entering the lake through a feeder stream hinder the eutrophication process. J. Increases in phosphate and nitrate concentration lead to more plant and algae growth, increasing chlorophyll levels in the lake. 3. Given the results of Experiments 1 and 2, all of the following would reduce the levels of phosphates and nitrates, and therefore the rate of eutrophication, of the lake EXCEPT: A. decreasing the amount of fertilizer used on the lake golf course. B. limiting use of pesticides on the farmland on the lake. C. increasing the number of farms on the lake. D. installing a filtration system to divert run-off from farmlands and the golf course away from the lake. 4. According to Table 2, which of the following statements is NOT true? F. Chlorophyll levels increase as distance to the golf course decreases. G. Phosphate concentration is unaffected by fertilizer application. H. Chlorophyll levels increase sharply the day after application of fertilizer on the golf course. J. Nitrate concentration decreases as distance from golf course increases. 5. Scientists suspect that leakage from sewage systems carrying wastewater from the houses on the lake also contributes to nutrient deposit in the lake. In order to test this hypothesis, what should the scientists do next? A. Sample groundwater near the sewage systems, test- ing for phosphate and nitrate content. B. Measure the chlorophyll levels at many more loca- tions in the lake. C. Test the nutrients in the drinking water of various houses around the lake. D. Obtain nutrient content of fertilizer used on residen- tial property. 6. If scientists sampled lake water from a third location 300 meters from the golf course, which of the following would most likely represent the average phosphate level found there? F. 35.3 mg/L G. 30.6 mg/L H. 26.2 mg/L J. 20.1 mg/L
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PRACTICE TEST 3 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 219
PASSAGE III
Students debate 4 hypotheses regarding the origin of the asteroid belt located between Mars and Jupiter, based on the following observations.
Observations Observation 1 —If all of the asteroids were gathered together into one object, the diameter of the object formed would be less than half the diameter of Earth’s Moon. Observation 2 —The total mass of the asteroid belt is only 4% that of the Moon. One asteroid alone, Ceres, contains 1 3
of the total mass of the asteroid belt.
Observation 3 —Asteroids are largely composed of sili- cate, with some deposits of iron and nickel, a composition proportionately similar to that of the terrestrial planets. Some asteroids also contain carbon and other elements. Observation 4 —There is a strong orbital resonance (overlapping gravity) with Jupiter in the region of the aster- oid belt, which keeps the asteroids in an orbit around the sun. Observation 5 —In reality, asteroids within the belt are very far apart, not clustered together. Observation 6 —Within the early solar system, the veloc- ity of collisions within the region of the asteroid belt was much higher than it is currently.
Hypothesis 1 All of the material that makes up the asteroids in the aster- oid belt is similar to that of the material that makes up the terrestrial planets. The velocity of collisions in the early solar system was at one time high enough to break apart
planets as they formed. Since one asteroid, Ceres, has
the total mass of the belt, the asteroids are most likely the result of a partially formed planet that broke apart and became trapped in an orbit between Mars and Jupiter.
Hypothesis 2 The material that composes the asteroids is similar to that of the terrestrial planets. The belt likely formed during the same time that the planets were forming, and due to the strong orbital resonance with the gas giant Jupiter and high velocity collisions, chunks of the material were pulled away from various planets and trapped within orbit. This also explains the varying composition of the asteroids throughout the belt.
Hypothesis 3 The asteroids could not once have been a planet, because there is not enough material within the entire belt to form a planet-sized object. The lack of material, shown by the total diameter and mass of the objects within the belt, is proof that the asteroids are no more than large particles left over from the formation of the terrestrial planets from a single cloud of material.
Hypothesis 4 The asteroids most likely came from somewhere outside the solar system. As they passed through space at varying
intervals, they were trapped by the large orbital resonance of Jupiter and formed a “belt.” The vast distances between most of the asteroids in the belt are evidence that they did not come from a singular source, but arrived at different points in the belt’s development.
12. According to Hypothesis 2, most of the matter com- posing the asteroids in the belt came from: F. Earth’s Moon. G. a partially formed planet between Mars and Jupiter. H. the same material that composes the terrestrial planets. J. a planet outside of Earth’s Solar System. 13. Supporters of Hypothesis 1 would most likely agree that, at the time the asteroid belt formed the planets were: A. still in the process of forming. B. completely formed as they are seen today. C. no more than a cloud of material in space. D. all the size of asteroids. 14. Suppose that supporters of Hypothesis 2 suggested that the asteroid belt, when it was first formed, contained dense formations of ice and debris slightly bigger than current asteroids. Which of the following state- ments about the asteroids’ composition would be most consistent with their suggestion? F. The asteroids’ ice content was constant after the belt was formed. G. The asteroids’ ice content decreased after the belt was formed. H. The asteroids’ ice content increased slowly after the belt was formed. J. The asteroids’ ice content increased rapidly after the belt was formed.
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220 PRACTICE TEST 3 SCIENCE REASONING TEST
15. Hypothesis 3 includes the assertion that the aster- oids are made up of particles left over from a single cloud of material. This assertion explains which of the following observations? A. Observations 1 and 2 B. Observation 4 only C. Observations 5 and 6 D. Observation 3 only 16. With which of the following statements would sup- porters of all four hypotheses agree? F. There is not enough scientific data to prove the existence of asteroids. G. Asteroids are comprised of the same material as that which comprises Mars. H. The asteroid belt lies entirely outside of the solar system. J. The objects currently in an orbit between Mars and Jupiter are asteroids. 17. Consider the crust of a terrestrial planet to have a pro- portion of silicate to iron to nickel of 10,000:100:10. Based on the information in the passage, the ratio of these substances in the composition of an average asteroid is likely to be: A. 500:10:1. B. 1,000:50:5. C. 10,000:100:10. D. 10,000:500:50. 18. Which of the following assumptions regarding the asteroid belt’s origins is implicit in Hypothesis 1? F. The asteroid’s composition is identical to that of the Moon. G. The asteroids have several different sources of origin. H. The asteroid belt is older than Jupiter. J. The asteroid belt is younger than Jupiter.
STOP! This is the end of NTI day 9!
