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NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2025 Questions and
Answers Updated (2025 / 2026) (Verified Answers)
- Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treating hypertension in a patient with chronic kidney disease? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Lisinopril C. Metoprolol D. Nifedipine
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps slow progression of kidney
disease by decreasing glomerular pressure and proteinuria.
- Which class of drugs is considered first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. Sulfonylureas B. Biguanides (e.g., metformin) C. DPP-4 inhibitors D. SGLT2 inhibitors
Metformin, a biguanide, is considered first-line therapy due to its
effectiveness, low cost, and safety profile.
- Which antibiotic is contraindicated during pregnancy? A. Cephalexin B. Doxycycline C. Amoxicillin D. Azithromycin
Doxycycline can affect fetal bone growth and cause teeth discoloration;
it is contraindicated in pregnancy.
- A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should be monitored regularly? A. aPTT B. Bleeding time C. INR D. Platelet count
INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin and ensure
the patient is not at risk of bleeding.
- Which of the following is an adverse effect of beta-blockers? A. Hyperglycemia B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Insomnia
A. ACE inhibitors B. ARBs C. Calcium channel blockers D. Beta-blockers
Calcium channel blockers are more effective in Black patients due to
different pathophysiologic responses to RAAS blockers.
- What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? A. Neutralize stomach acid B. Stimulate mucosal secretion C. Block H2 receptors D. Inhibit the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme
PPIs inhibit the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme, reducing gastric
acid production.
10.Which drug class is most associated with the development of angioedema? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. ARBs D. Diuretics
ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can lead to
angioedema.
11.What is a common side effect of metformin? A. Gastrointestinal upset B. Weight gain C. Hypoglycemia D. Drowsiness
Metformin often causes GI symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain.
12.Which of the following medications should be avoided in patients with a sulfa allergy? A. Amoxicillin B. Furosemide C. Losartan D. Acetaminophen
Furosemide contains a sulfa moiety and may cause reactions in patients
with sulfa allergies.
13.Which lab test should be monitored in a patient on an ACE inhibitor? A. BUN and creatinine only B. BUN, creatinine, and potassium
16.A patient reports a dry cough after starting an antihypertensive. Which drug is likely responsible? A. Losartan B. Lisinopril C. Amlodipine D. Hydrochlorothiazide
ACE inhibitors like lisinopril increase bradykinin, which causes a
persistent dry cough.
17.What is the black box warning for SSRIs in children and adolescents? A. Liver toxicity B. Increased risk of suicidal ideation C. Weight gain D. Seizures
SSRIs can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in children
and adolescents.
18.Which of the following should not be taken with grapefruit juice? A. Simvastatin B. Lisinopril C. Metformin D. Warfarin
Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, increasing levels of drugs like
simvastatin and risk of toxicity.
19.What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenil C. Atropine D. Protamine sulfate
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse
sedative effects.
20.Which medication is a long-acting insulin? A. Regular insulin B. NPH C. Insulin lispro D. Insulin glargine
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides basal coverage for
up to 24 hours.
21.Which antibiotic is safe to use in a patient with a penicillin allergy? A. Amoxicillin B. Cephalexin
24.Which of the following medications should be avoided in heart failure? A. Lisinopril B. Metoprolol succinate C. Verapamil D. Furosemide
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like verapamil can
worsen heart failure.
25.Which drug requires regular thyroid function monitoring? A. Amiodarone B. Warfarin C. Digoxin D. Metformin
Amiodarone can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism due to its high
iodine content.
26.Which of the following is most appropriate for acute asthma exacerbation? A. Montelukast B. Fluticasone C. Albuterol D. Salmeterol
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for quick relief during an
asthma attack.
27.What is the main adverse effect of clozapine? A. Weight gain B. Agranulocytosis C. Hypertension D. Diarrhea
Clozapine carries a risk for life-threatening agranulocytosis and requires
regular CBC monitoring.
28.A patient on phenytoin should be monitored for: A. Gingival hyperplasia B. Alopecia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperactivity
Phenytoin commonly causes gingival overgrowth, especially with poor
oral hygiene.
29.Which of the following medications is contraindicated with erectile dysfunction drugs?
32.A patient prescribed levothyroxine should be educated to: A. Take it on an empty stomach in the morning B. Take it with meals C. Take it at bedtime with milk D. Take it only when symptomatic
Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, ideally 30– 60
minutes before breakfast.
33.Which drug class is contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal bone growth issues? A. Macrolides B. Beta-lactams C. Tetracyclines D. Antihistamines
Tetracyclines can affect fetal bone and teeth development and are
contraindicated during pregnancy.
34.What is the recommended first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder? A. Benzodiazepines B. SSRIs
C. TCAs D. MAOIs
SSRIs are the preferred first-line pharmacologic treatment due to their
safety and efficacy profile.
35.Which class of antihypertensives is most associated with peripheral edema? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. ARBs
Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine commonly
cause peripheral edema.
36.What is a common side effect of opioids? A. Diarrhea B. Constipation C. Increased urination D. Hyperactivity
Opioids decrease GI motility, often leading to constipation.
37.Which medication may cause QT prolongation?
40.Which of the following medications can cause ototoxicity? A. Furosemide B. Amlodipine C. Atorvastatin D. Metformin
High doses or rapid infusion of furosemide can cause hearing loss due to
ototoxicity.
41.Which vitamin should be supplemented in a patient on isoniazid? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) C. Vitamin K D. Folic acid
Isoniazid depletes vitamin B6, leading to peripheral neuropathy if not
supplemented.
42.What is the most likely adverse effect of niacin? A. Bradycardia B. Flushing C. Constipation D. Sedation
Niacin commonly causes vasodilation, resulting in skin flushing and
warmth.
43.Which drug requires therapeutic drug monitoring? A. Metoprolol B. Vancomycin C. Sertraline D. Amlodipine
Vancomycin requires monitoring of trough levels to prevent
nephrotoxicity and ensure efficacy.
44.Which of the following should be avoided when taking lithium? A. Dairy B. Potassium-rich foods C. NSAIDs D. Acetaminophen
NSAIDs can reduce renal clearance of lithium, increasing the risk of
toxicity.
45.What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics? A. Block sodium-potassium pump in distal tubule B. Inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride cotransport in loop of Henle
48.A child with Kawasaki disease is treated initially with: A. Prednisone B. IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) C. Methotrexate D. Penicillin
IVIG is the first-line treatment to reduce coronary artery complications
in Kawasaki disease.
49.Which of the following drugs increases the risk for serotonin syndrome? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Warfarin C. Linezolid D. Albuterol
Linezolid is an MAOI and can increase serotonin levels, especially when
combined with SSRIs or SNRIs.
50.Which of the following medications is most appropriate for BPH with hypertension? A. Finasteride B. Doxazosin C. Sildenafil D. Tamsulosin
Doxazosin treats BPH and also lowers blood pressure, making it ideal in
patients with both conditions.
51.Which lab value should be monitored in a patient taking enoxaparin? A. INR B. PT C. aPTT D. Platelet count
Enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) can cause
thrombocytopenia; platelet counts must be monitored.
52.Which medication is used as first-line therapy for major depressive disorder? A. Bupropion B. Sertraline C. Nortriptyline D. Phenelzine
SSRIs like sertraline are first-line due to their efficacy and relatively low
side-effect profile.
53.Which medication can exacerbate gout?
