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NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2025 Questions and Answers Updated (2025 / 2026) (Verified, Exams of Nursing

NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2025 Questions and Answers Updated (2025 / 2026) (Verified Answers)

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/02/2025

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NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2025 Questions and
Answers Updated (2025 / 2026) (Verified Answers)
1. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treating
hypertension in a patient with chronic kidney disease?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Nifedipine
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps slow progression of kidney
disease by decreasing glomerular pressure and proteinuria.
2. Which class of drugs is considered first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes
mellitus?
A. Sulfonylureas
B. Biguanides (e.g., metformin)
C. DPP-4 inhibitors
D. SGLT2 inhibitors
Metformin, a biguanide, is considered first-line therapy due to its
effectiveness, low cost, and safety profile.
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NSG6020 / NSG 6020 Final Exam 2025 Questions and

Answers Updated (2025 / 2026) (Verified Answers)

  1. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treating hypertension in a patient with chronic kidney disease? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Lisinopril C. Metoprolol D. Nifedipine

Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps slow progression of kidney

disease by decreasing glomerular pressure and proteinuria.

  1. Which class of drugs is considered first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes mellitus? A. Sulfonylureas B. Biguanides (e.g., metformin) C. DPP-4 inhibitors D. SGLT2 inhibitors

Metformin, a biguanide, is considered first-line therapy due to its

effectiveness, low cost, and safety profile.

  1. Which antibiotic is contraindicated during pregnancy? A. Cephalexin B. Doxycycline C. Amoxicillin D. Azithromycin

Doxycycline can affect fetal bone growth and cause teeth discoloration;

it is contraindicated in pregnancy.

  1. A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should be monitored regularly? A. aPTT B. Bleeding time C. INR D. Platelet count

INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin and ensure

the patient is not at risk of bleeding.

  1. Which of the following is an adverse effect of beta-blockers? A. Hyperglycemia B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Insomnia

A. ACE inhibitors B. ARBs C. Calcium channel blockers D. Beta-blockers

Calcium channel blockers are more effective in Black patients due to

different pathophysiologic responses to RAAS blockers.

  1. What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? A. Neutralize stomach acid B. Stimulate mucosal secretion C. Block H2 receptors D. Inhibit the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme

PPIs inhibit the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme, reducing gastric

acid production.

10.Which drug class is most associated with the development of angioedema? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. ARBs D. Diuretics

ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can lead to

angioedema.

11.What is a common side effect of metformin? A. Gastrointestinal upset B. Weight gain C. Hypoglycemia D. Drowsiness

Metformin often causes GI symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and

abdominal pain.

12.Which of the following medications should be avoided in patients with a sulfa allergy? A. Amoxicillin B. Furosemide C. Losartan D. Acetaminophen

Furosemide contains a sulfa moiety and may cause reactions in patients

with sulfa allergies.

13.Which lab test should be monitored in a patient on an ACE inhibitor? A. BUN and creatinine only B. BUN, creatinine, and potassium

16.A patient reports a dry cough after starting an antihypertensive. Which drug is likely responsible? A. Losartan B. Lisinopril C. Amlodipine D. Hydrochlorothiazide

ACE inhibitors like lisinopril increase bradykinin, which causes a

persistent dry cough.

17.What is the black box warning for SSRIs in children and adolescents? A. Liver toxicity B. Increased risk of suicidal ideation C. Weight gain D. Seizures

SSRIs can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in children

and adolescents.

18.Which of the following should not be taken with grapefruit juice? A. Simvastatin B. Lisinopril C. Metformin D. Warfarin

Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, increasing levels of drugs like

simvastatin and risk of toxicity.

19.What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose? A. Naloxone B. Flumazenil C. Atropine D. Protamine sulfate

Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse

sedative effects.

20.Which medication is a long-acting insulin? A. Regular insulin B. NPH C. Insulin lispro D. Insulin glargine

Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides basal coverage for

up to 24 hours.

21.Which antibiotic is safe to use in a patient with a penicillin allergy? A. Amoxicillin B. Cephalexin

24.Which of the following medications should be avoided in heart failure? A. Lisinopril B. Metoprolol succinate C. Verapamil D. Furosemide

Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like verapamil can

worsen heart failure.

25.Which drug requires regular thyroid function monitoring? A. Amiodarone B. Warfarin C. Digoxin D. Metformin

Amiodarone can cause both hypo- and hyperthyroidism due to its high

iodine content.

26.Which of the following is most appropriate for acute asthma exacerbation? A. Montelukast B. Fluticasone C. Albuterol D. Salmeterol

Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for quick relief during an

asthma attack.

27.What is the main adverse effect of clozapine? A. Weight gain B. Agranulocytosis C. Hypertension D. Diarrhea

Clozapine carries a risk for life-threatening agranulocytosis and requires

regular CBC monitoring.

28.A patient on phenytoin should be monitored for: A. Gingival hyperplasia B. Alopecia C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperactivity

Phenytoin commonly causes gingival overgrowth, especially with poor

oral hygiene.

29.Which of the following medications is contraindicated with erectile dysfunction drugs?

32.A patient prescribed levothyroxine should be educated to: A. Take it on an empty stomach in the morning B. Take it with meals C. Take it at bedtime with milk D. Take it only when symptomatic

Levothyroxine is best absorbed on an empty stomach, ideally 30– 60

minutes before breakfast.

33.Which drug class is contraindicated in pregnancy due to fetal bone growth issues? A. Macrolides B. Beta-lactams C. Tetracyclines D. Antihistamines

Tetracyclines can affect fetal bone and teeth development and are

contraindicated during pregnancy.

34.What is the recommended first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder? A. Benzodiazepines B. SSRIs

C. TCAs D. MAOIs

SSRIs are the preferred first-line pharmacologic treatment due to their

safety and efficacy profile.

35.Which class of antihypertensives is most associated with peripheral edema? A. Calcium channel blockers B. Beta-blockers C. ACE inhibitors D. ARBs

Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine commonly

cause peripheral edema.

36.What is a common side effect of opioids? A. Diarrhea B. Constipation C. Increased urination D. Hyperactivity

Opioids decrease GI motility, often leading to constipation.

37.Which medication may cause QT prolongation?

40.Which of the following medications can cause ototoxicity? A. Furosemide B. Amlodipine C. Atorvastatin D. Metformin

High doses or rapid infusion of furosemide can cause hearing loss due to

ototoxicity.

41.Which vitamin should be supplemented in a patient on isoniazid? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) C. Vitamin K D. Folic acid

Isoniazid depletes vitamin B6, leading to peripheral neuropathy if not

supplemented.

42.What is the most likely adverse effect of niacin? A. Bradycardia B. Flushing C. Constipation D. Sedation

Niacin commonly causes vasodilation, resulting in skin flushing and

warmth.

43.Which drug requires therapeutic drug monitoring? A. Metoprolol B. Vancomycin C. Sertraline D. Amlodipine

Vancomycin requires monitoring of trough levels to prevent

nephrotoxicity and ensure efficacy.

44.Which of the following should be avoided when taking lithium? A. Dairy B. Potassium-rich foods C. NSAIDs D. Acetaminophen

NSAIDs can reduce renal clearance of lithium, increasing the risk of

toxicity.

45.What is the mechanism of action of loop diuretics? A. Block sodium-potassium pump in distal tubule B. Inhibit sodium-potassium-chloride cotransport in loop of Henle

48.A child with Kawasaki disease is treated initially with: A. Prednisone B. IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) C. Methotrexate D. Penicillin

IVIG is the first-line treatment to reduce coronary artery complications

in Kawasaki disease.

49.Which of the following drugs increases the risk for serotonin syndrome? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Warfarin C. Linezolid D. Albuterol

Linezolid is an MAOI and can increase serotonin levels, especially when

combined with SSRIs or SNRIs.

50.Which of the following medications is most appropriate for BPH with hypertension? A. Finasteride B. Doxazosin C. Sildenafil D. Tamsulosin

Doxazosin treats BPH and also lowers blood pressure, making it ideal in

patients with both conditions.

51.Which lab value should be monitored in a patient taking enoxaparin? A. INR B. PT C. aPTT D. Platelet count

Enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin) can cause

thrombocytopenia; platelet counts must be monitored.

52.Which medication is used as first-line therapy for major depressive disorder? A. Bupropion B. Sertraline C. Nortriptyline D. Phenelzine

SSRIs like sertraline are first-line due to their efficacy and relatively low

side-effect profile.

53.Which medication can exacerbate gout?