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NSG 6998 APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+ SOUTH UNIVERSITY
Typology: Exams
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What is the biggest side effect of colchicine?
diarrhea
How would you describe the appearance of molluscum contagiosum?
papules that are umbilicated and contain a caseous plug
How do we treat a broken clavicle in an infant?
no treatment; it should heal on it's own
At what week of pregnancy is the uterus palpable just above the pubic symphysis?
week 12
At what week of pregnancy is the fundus palpable halfway between the pubic symphysis and umbilicus?
week 16
At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus at the umbilicus?
week 20
At what week of pregnancy is the fundus of the uterus halfway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus?
week 28
At what week of pregnancy is the fundus just below the xiphoid process?
week 34
Increased sweat production is a sign of what endocrine disorder?
hyperthyroidism
When should patients begin antiretroviral therapy for HIV infection?
as soon as it is detected, even if in the acute phase
What are the first generation antihistamines?
diphenhydramine (benadryl) and chlorpeniramine (actifed)
What are s/s of the secondary stage of syphilis?
rash on hands and feet, lymphadenopathy, fever
What is the recommended treatment for chronic bacterial prostatitis?
a fluoroquinolone (cipro or levo) + bactrim
What is the recommended treatment for acute prostatitis?
cipro (if not STI related) or ceftriaxone
What are s/s of an intraductal breast papilloma?
clear to bloody unilateral nipple discharge (bilateral is usually benign), and also a wart like lump palpated in the nipple area
If a patient has GABHS but has an allergy to penicillins, what is the second line option?
first generation cephalosporins, unless the allergy is severe, then you would consider macrolides like a -mycin
PDE5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil) are contraindicated in which patient populations?
in those who are on any type of nitrate or triptan because it could result in hypotension
What class of drug is sildenafil (viagra)?
a PDE5 inhibitor which can cause hypotension so you should do a full cardiac assessment before starting a patient on this and maybe do an EKG
What are the symptoms of peripheral artery disease?
Bactrim increases INR so we would want to decrease the coumadin dose while the patient is on this
If a patient is on Coumadin but then they may need to go on Rifampin, what should you do?
Rifampin decreases INR so we'd want to increase the coumadin dose
If a patient on coumadin's INR is 3.1-4 ,what should you do?
decrease the weekly dose by 5-10%
If a patient on coumadin's INR is 4.1-5.0, what should you do?
hold one dose then decrease the weekly dose by 10%
If a patient's INR is greater than 5, what should you do?
consult cards, likely would hold two doses then decrease the weekly dose
An anorexic patient will have a BMI of what?
less than 18
What is primary amenorrhea?
when the patient has never gotten their period before (there is an absence of menarche) but they have all of their secondary sex characteristics
Secondary amenorrhea is a lack of menses after _________ of not having a period; but you have had one before
3 months
What do we need to do first when a patient comes in with secondary amenorrhea?
rule out pregnancy
Anorexia can put you at risk for what?
osteoporosis, amenorrhea, cardiac damage
What is one of the biggest risk factors for cervical cancer?
numerous sexual partners
Preeclampsia most commonly shows up at what time in pregnancy?
around week 20
How do we treat UTIs in a pregnant woman?
can either do penicillin, cephalosporin, or a macrolide (can NOT do doxy or a fluoroquinolone)
When do fibrocystic breasts tend to flare up and cause tenderness and lumps?
about 10 days before menses
What can be a sequelae of an ectopic pregnancy?
pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility due to scarring of the fallopian tube (salpingitis)
What is the Coomb's test and when is this completed?
test given 8 weeks in to pregnancy to determine a woman's RH compatibility
If a patient's Coomb's test is positive, what do we do?
nothing, she is RH positive so we do not need to treat
If a patient's Coomb's test is negative, what do we do?
give rhogam at 28 weeks and 72 hours after birth
What is the only form of non-hormonal contraception other than barrier methods such as condoms?
IUD
The vaginal ring for contraception must be taken out how often?
every 3 weeks
In terms of the breasts, _____________ is used for screening and _____________ is used for diagnosis.
mammogram; ultrasound
When do we screen for group B strep in pregnancy?
weeks 35-
When do we perform alpha fetoprotein screening in pregnancy?
15-20 weeks
Alpha fetoprotein screening in pregnancy can help determine the presence of what in pregnancy?
spina bifida and anencephaly
What is placenta previa?
when the placenta blocks the cervical opening of the uterus
What is placenta abruptio?
when the placenta either fully or partially detaches from the uterine wall
When does placental abruption most commonly occur?
in the third trimester
What is the major difference in symptomalogy between placenta abruptio and placenta previa?
a placental abruption is painful whereas placenta previa is painless
If a pregnant woman comes in with painless vaginal bleeding, what should we be considering?
placenta previa
What is the recommended treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?
steroids
Patients with SLE are going to have what abnormal labwork?
What is the trendelenburg sign and when is it positive?
when the patient is standing straight and the pelvis on the unaffected side drops; this is a sign of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis
What is the main characteristic of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
walking with a limp
SCFE is most common in which patient population?
adolescents
What is legg-calve-perthe disease?
avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to a lack of blood supply
Legg-calve-perthes disease is most common in which patient population?
young children
What is the radiographic study of choice for the knee?
What is the radiographic study of choice for the back?
x ray
What is bursitis?
a fluid collection in the bursa of a joint
How is bursitis treated?
a needle to instill intraarticular steroids and then pull off fluid
Bursitis can be a __________ issue
recurrent
The medical term for knock knees
genu valgum
What is the tell-tale difference between a herniated disc and sciatica?
sciatica feels better when you stand, a herniated disc feels better when you sit down
When will spinal or lumbar stenosis feel better?
when the patient sits down
What is Korsakoff syndrome?
a deficiency in thiamine and folate caused by alcoholism
What changes to the vagina occur with aging?
dryness, loss of rugae, less pubic hair
What is a navicular fracture?
also known as a scaphoid fracture; this impacts the snuff box and causes tenderness there. This will have to be casted to stabilize the fracture
Heberden and bouchard's nodes are indicative of what disease process? What about swan neck deformities?
osteoarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis
What is Morton's neuroma?
a mass between the 3rd and 4th toes that feels like a pebble; most common in women who wear high heels or tight shoes
How is Morton's neuroma diagnosed?
via a positive Muddler's or squeeze test causing pain
What is the hook test?
used to assess for a bicep tendon issue
How do we treat any rotator cuff injuries?
wear a sling to stabilize the arm and refer to ortho
