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NSG 530 Exam (1, 2, & 3) Advanced Pathophysiology - Wilkes (Latest 2025 / 2026), Exams of Pathophysiology

NSG 530 / NSG 530 Exam (Latest 2025 / 2026) Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam Advanced Pathophysiology - Wilkes NSG 530 Exam (1, 2, & 3) Advanced Pathophysiology - Wilkes (Latest 2025 / 2026), 100% Verified Pass Your (2025 / 2026) Wilkes NSG 530 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Qs and Ans with Explanation, Verified Revised Full Exam

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NSG 530 EXAM 1, 2 & 3
Advanced Pathophysiology - Wilkes
Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains:
NSG 530 Exam 1, 2 & 3
100% Guarantee Pass.
Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
Expert-Verified explanation
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NSG 530 EXAM 1, 2 & 3

Advanced Pathophysiology - Wilkes

Actual Questions and Answers

100% Guarantee Pass

This Exam contains:

➢ NSG 530 Exam 1, 2 & 3

➢ 100% Guarantee Pass.

➢ Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.

➢ Each Question Includes The Correct Answer

➢ Expert-Verified explanation

Table of Contents

NSG 530 EXAM 1 ........................................................................... 2

NSG 530 Exam 2 .......................................................................... 97

NSG 530 Exam 3 ........................................................................ 136

NSG 530 EXAM 1

  1. When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by:
    • A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
    • B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
    • C) Phagocytosis in the spleen
    • D) Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products Answer: C) Phagocytosis in the spleen Explanation: In cases of Rh incompatibility, antibodies target Rh-positive red blood cells, and these cells are typically cleared from circulation through phagocytosis by macrophages in the spleen.
  2. When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
    • A) Complement-mediated cell lysis
    • B) Phagocytosis by macrophages
    • C) Phagocytosis in the spleen

Explanation: Graves' disease is a type II hypersensitivity reaction where autoantibodies stimulate the thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor, leading to excessive thyroid hormone production and hyperthyroidism.

  1. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following?
    • A) Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators
    • B) Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues
    • C) Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets
    • D) Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface Answer: B) Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues Explanation: Type III hypersensitivity occurs when immune complexes formed from antibodies binding to soluble antigens deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and damage through complement activation.
  2. Hypersensitivity is best defined as:
    • A) Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
    • B) Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
    • C) Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
    • D) Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens

Answer: C) Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease Explanation: Hypersensitivity refers to an exaggerated or altered immune response that leads to tissue damage, resulting in clinical disease. It encompasses various allergic reactions where the immune system overreacts to perceived threats.

  1. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
    • A) Hemolytic shock
    • B) Anaphylaxis
    • C) Necrotizing vasculitis
    • D) Systemic erythematosus Answer: B) Anaphylaxis Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a severe and rapid hypersensitivity reaction characterized by a systemic response, including symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and in severe cases, shock. It is a critical medical emergency.
  2. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
    • A) IgE
    • B) IgG
    • C) IgM
    • D) T cells

through blood transfusion reactions where the recipient’s immune system may reject transfused blood cells.

  1. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
    • A) Neutrophils
    • B) Monocytes
    • C) Eosinophils
    • D) T lymphocytes Answer: C) Eosinophils Explanation: Eosinophils are crucial in mediating allergic inflammatory responses and are often elevated in conditions associated with IgE- mediated hypersensitivity, such as asthma and allergic rhinitis.
  2. What causes bronchospasm during an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction?
    • A) Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
    • B) Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody
    • C) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H receptors
    • D) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H receptors Answer: C) Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H receptors

Explanation: In an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, histamine released from mast cells binds to H1 receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, causing bronchoconstriction and resulting in symptoms such as wheezing and shortness of breath.

  1. The degranulation of mast cells during an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction is a result of which receptor action?
    • A) Histamine bound to H
    • B) Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor
    • C) Epinephrine bound to mast cells
    • D) Acetylcholine bound to mast cells Answer: B) Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor Explanation: Degranulation of mast cells is often initiated by the binding of allergens to IgE antibodies on their surface, triggering signaling pathways leading to the release of mediators, including histamines, cytokines, and other inflammatory substances.
  2. What characteristic makes atopic individuals genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
    • A) Greater quantities of histamine
    • B) More histamine receptors
    • C) Greater quantities of IgE
    • D) A deficiency in epinephrine Answer: C) Greater quantities of IgE

Answer: C) Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets Explanation: Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by T lymphocytes (especially Th1 cells), which respond to antigens by releasing cytokines that recruit and activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells, directly leading to cell-mediated damage.

  1. In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of:
    • A) Cytotoxic T cells
    • B) Natural killer cells
    • C) Complement activation
    • D) Degranulation of mast cells Answer: C) Complement activation Explanation: The immune complexes formed in type III hypersensitivity activate the complement system, which leads to recruitment of inflammatory cells and tissue damage due to inflammation.
  2. Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to:
    • A) Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
    • B) Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation
  • C) Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues
  • D) Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species Answer: A) Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation Explanation: In Raynaud's phenomenon, immune complexes deposited in small blood vessels can trigger localized vasospasm, leading to reduced blood flow and characteristic symptoms during cold exposure or stress.
  1. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?
  • A) Iron
  • B) Zinc
  • C) Iodine
  • D) Magnesium Answer: B) Zinc Explanation: Zinc is essential for overall immune function, influencing the development and activity of both B and T lymphocytes. Zinc deficiency can impair adaptive immune responses and increase susceptibility to infections.
  • A) Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
  • B) Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
  • C) Receptors on natural killer cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
  • D) Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue. Answer: A) Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue. Explanation: Acute rejection is mainly mediated by T cells that recognize foreign HLA molecules, leading to an immune response against the transplanted organ.
  1. Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
  • A) Platelets
  • B) Neutrophils
  • C) Lymphocytes
  • D) Erythrocytes Answer: D) Erythrocytes Explanation: Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain surface antigens that determine blood type.
  1. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti- antibodies?
    • A) A
    • B) B
    • C) A and B
    • D) O Answer: C) A and B Explanation: Individuals with type O blood naturally produce antibodies against both A and B antigens, hence they have high titers of anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
  2. Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?
    • A) IgA
    • B) IgE
    • C) IgG
    • D) IgM Answer: D) IgM Explanation: IgM is the primary antibody class produced in response to blood group antigens and forms isohemagglutinins against incompatible blood types.
  3. Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast?
    • A) Natural killer cells

Explanation: Newborns typically start producing their own antibodies around 3 to 6 months, with sufficient protection developing over this period.

  1. Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells?
    • A) B cells
    • B) T cells
    • C) Natural killer cells
    • D) Neutrophils Answer: B) T cells Explanation: Protein-energy malnutrition significantly impacts T-cell development, leading to a compromised immune response.
  2. Urticaria is a manifestation of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    • A) IV
    • B) III
    • C) II
    • D) I Answer: D) I Explanation: Urticaria (hives) is primarily caused by IgE-mediated release of histamine from mast cells, a hallmark of type I hypersensitivity.
  3. Graves disease is a result of:
    • A) Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins
  • B) The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes
  • C) Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)- receptor sites
  • D) Exposure to acetylates in substances such as rubber Answer: C) Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)- receptor sites Explanation: In Graves' disease, autoantibodies stimulate the TSH receptor, leading to overproduction of thyroid hormones.
  1. Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity?
  • A) IV
  • B) III
  • C) II
  • D) I Answer: B) III Explanation: Raynaud phenomenon is associated with immune complex deposition and a resultant reduction in blood flow due to vascular occlusion.
  1. Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?
  • A) They tend to produce less IgE.
  • B) They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
  • C) They tend to attract very few mast cells.
  • D) They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.
  1. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    • A) I
    • B) II
    • C) III
    • D) IV Answer: A) I Explanation: IgE is primarily involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as allergies and anaphylaxis.
  2. Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody?
    • A) Binding with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells, causing neonatal muscular weakness
    • B) Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism
    • C) Inducing anomalies in the fetus or causing pregnancy loss
    • D) Destroying platelets in the fetus and neonate Answer: B) Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism Explanation: Maternal antibodies can cross the placenta and stimulate the fetal thyroid, leading to hyperthyroidism.
  1. When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
    • A) Histamine
    • B) T lymphocytes
    • C) Immune complexes
    • D) Products of complement
    • E) Macrophages Answer: B) T lymphocytes E) Macrophages Explanation: The induration results from a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by Th1 cells and coordinated by macrophages.
  2. Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)
    • A) Poison ivy
    • B) Neomycin
    • C) Dairy products
    • D) Nickel
    • E) Detergents Answer: A) Poison ivy B) Neomycin D) Nickel E) Detergents