Download NSG 5140 – NSG5140 Advanced Pathophysiology (Final Exam Review) Questions And Correct Ans and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NSG 5140 – NSG5140 Advanced Pathophysiology (Final
Exam Review) Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download
PDF South College
based on standard advanced pathophysiology topics taught at South College and similar programs
1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus? A. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues B. Overproduction of insulin by the pancreas C. Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells D. Increased hepatic glucose production Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to insulin deficiency. 2. What is the initial step in the development of atherosclerosis? A. Plaque rupture B. Endothelial injury C. Lipid oxidation D. Foam cell formation Endothelial injury is the first step in atherosclerosis, leading to inflammation and lipid deposition.
3. Which compensatory mechanism is activated first in heart failure? A. Sympathetic nervous system activation B. Myocardial hypertrophy C. Frank-Starling mechanism D. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation The Frank-Starling mechanism increases stroke volume in response to increased end-diastolic volume as an initial compensation. 4. What causes the edema seen in nephrotic syndrome? A. Increased hydrostatic pressure B. Lymphatic obstruction C. Decreased oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia D. Increased capillary permeability Loss of albumin in urine reduces oncotic pressure, allowing fluid to leak into tissues. 5. Which of the following cytokines is primarily responsible for the induction of fever? A. IL- 10 B. IL- 1 C. IL- 4 D. TGF-beta IL-1 acts on the hypothalamus to reset the thermoregulatory set point, producing fever. 6. What electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with Addison’s disease?
D. GABA
Parkinson’s disease is caused by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra.
10. In sepsis, what causes hypotension and organ dysfunction? A. Increased cardiac output B. Widespread vasodilation and capillary leakage C. Decreased vascular permeability D. Increased blood volume Inflammatory cytokines in sepsis lead to vasodilation, leaky capillaries, and hypoperfusion. 11. Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating red blood cell production? A. Renin B. Erythropoietin C. Aldosterone D. Thyroxine Erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys and stimulates bone marrow to produce red blood cells. 12. A patient with SIADH would most likely present with which electrolyte imbalance? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypokalemia In SIADH, excess ADH causes water retention and dilutional hyponatremia.
13. What is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation? A. Down syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Turner syndrome D. Fragile X syndrome Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited form of intellectual disability. 14. In which condition is the Gower’s sign commonly seen? A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Multiple sclerosis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Myasthenia gravis Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy use their hands to "climb up" their legs due to proximal muscle weakness. 15. What causes the cyanosis seen in Tetralogy of Fallot? A. Left-to-right shunting B. Right-to-left shunting through VSD C. Pulmonary hypertension D. Increased pulmonary blood flow The right-to-left shunt allows deoxygenated blood to bypass the lungs and enter systemic circulation. 16. Which of the following is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease pathology? A. Lewy bodies
B-lymphocytes are responsible for antibody production, a key feature of humoral immunity.
20. Which of the following is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Cushing’s triad B. Coma C. Headache D. Papilledema Headache is one of the earliest signs of increased ICP due to pressure on pain- sensitive structures. 21. Which acid-base imbalance is most likely to occur in a patient with prolonged vomiting? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis Loss of gastric acid (HCl) during vomiting leads to a buildup of bicarbonate, causing metabolic alkalosis. 22. What is the hallmark symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Tremors B. Flaccid paralysis C. Visual disturbances D. Dementia
Optic neuritis, leading to blurred vision or vision loss, is often the first symptom of MS.
23. What cardiac abnormality is most associated with Marfan syndrome? A. Mitral valve stenosis B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Aortic root dilation D. Atrial septal defect Marfan syndrome often causes dilation of the aortic root, increasing risk for dissection or rupture. 24. Which of the following is a cause of post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI)? A. Glomerulonephritis B. Hypovolemia C. Ureteral obstruction D. Nephrotoxic drugs Post-renal AKI results from obstruction of urinary flow, such as from kidney stones or tumors. 25. Which of the following statements describes the pathophysiology of asthma? A. Loss of surfactant and alveolar collapse B. Chronic airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction C. Destruction of alveolar walls D. Fibrosis of lung parenchyma Asthma is characterized by reversible airway inflammation, bronchospasm, and increased mucus.
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading bacterial cause of pneumonia in healthy adults.
30. Which of the following is a characteristic of left-sided heart failure? A. Peripheral edema B. Jugular vein distention C. Pulmonary congestion D. Hepatomegaly Left-sided heart failure leads to fluid backup in the lungs, causing pulmonary edema and dyspnea. 31. Which lab result is most indicative of pancreatitis? A. Elevated bilirubin B. Elevated lipase C. Elevated AST D. Decreased albumin Serum lipase is the most specific and sensitive marker for acute pancreatitis. 32. What electrolyte imbalance is common with tumor lysis syndrome? A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypophosphatemia D. Hypernatremia
When cancer cells lyse, they release intracellular potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
33. What process allows cancer cells to invade surrounding tissues? A. Apoptosis B. Angiogenesis C. Loss of contact inhibition D. Telomere shortening Loss of contact inhibition enables uncontrolled growth and tissue invasion by cancer cells. 34. What genetic defect causes cystic fibrosis? A. Trisomy 21 B. Mutation in the CFTR gene C. FMR1 gene mutation D. HFE gene mutation Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene affecting chloride ion transport. 35. Which of the following is characteristic of ulcerative colitis? A. Skip lesions B. Transmural inflammation C. Continuous mucosal inflammation D. Granuloma formation Ulcerative colitis affects the colon mucosa in a continuous pattern, without skip lesions.
D. Vitamin K deficiency Insufficient platelets cannot form plugs, leading to small pinpoint hemorrhages (petechiae).
40. Which cardiac enzyme is most specific for myocardial infarction? A. CK-MB B. Myoglobin C. Troponin I D. BNP Troponin I is the most specific and sensitive marker for myocardial injury. 41. Which renal structure is primarily affected in glomerulonephritis? A. Glomerulus B. Loop of Henle C. Renal pelvis D. Collecting duct Glomerulonephritis involves inflammation of the glomeruli, impairing filtration. 42. In hypothyroidism, which lab pattern is expected? A. Low TSH, high T3/T B. Low TSH, low T3/T C. High TSH, low T3/T D. High TSH, high T3/T In primary hypothyroidism, the thyroid fails to produce T3/T4, prompting increased TSH production.
43. Which type of shock is caused by myocardial infarction? A. Hypovolemic B. Distributive C. Cardiogenic D. Obstructive Cardiogenic shock results from impaired cardiac output, often due to myocardial infarction. 44. What is the pathophysiological effect of carbon monoxide poisoning? A. Inhibits ATP production B. Destroys red blood cells C. Binds hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery D. Causes bronchoconstriction Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin with high affinity, displacing oxygen and leading to tissue hypoxia. 45. Which autoimmune disease is characterized by antibodies against acetylcholine receptors? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Lupus D. ALS In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies block or destroy acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. 46. What is the major pathophysiological finding in ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)?
D. GABA
Acetylcholine levels are reduced due to degeneration of cholinergic neurons in Alzheimer’s disease.
50. What genetic condition results in a 45,X karyotype? A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Fragile X syndrome D. Down syndrome Turner syndrome is characterized by a missing X chromosome, leading to short stature and gonadal dysgenesis. 51. What is a common symptom of right-sided heart failure? A. Pulmonary edema B. Crackles C. Peripheral edema D. Orthopnea Right-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the systemic venous system, leading to peripheral swelling. 52. Which condition involves antibody-mediated destruction of insulin- producing cells? A. Type 2 diabetes B. Type 1 diabetes C. Metabolic syndrome D. Gestational diabetes Type 1 diabetes is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
53. In liver cirrhosis, what is the cause of ascites? A. Increased renal sodium excretion B. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia C. Increased bile production D. Hyperbilirubinemia Portal hypertension and low albumin levels contribute to fluid leakage into the peritoneal cavity. 54. Which type of anemia is associated with a deficiency of intrinsic factor? A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Pernicious anemia D. Sickle cell anemia Pernicious anemia is a B12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor, leading to megaloblastic anemia. 55. What is the typical ABG finding in pulmonary embolism? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis PE causes hyperventilation due to hypoxia, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. 56. What is the underlying defect in sickle cell disease? A. Abnormal beta-globin chain of hemoglobin B. Decreased alpha-globin chain production C. Iron overload
A. B cells B. Mast cells C. NK cells D. T-helper cells Mast cells release histamine and other mediators, initiating inflammation.
61. What is the most common cause of cirrhosis in the United States? A. Hepatitis C B. Alcohol abuse C. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis D. Hemochromatosis Chronic alcohol abuse remains the leading cause of cirrhosis due to progressive liver damage. 62. What electrolyte imbalance is associated with prolonged QT interval and muscle cramps? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypernatremia Low calcium levels affect neuromuscular and cardiac conduction, prolonging the QT interval. 63. What is the primary pathophysiological feature of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? A. T-cell deficiency
B. Formation of autoantibodies and immune complex deposition C. Increased neutrophil activity D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors SLE involves autoantibodies and immune complexes that deposit in tissues, causing inflammation.
64. What is the best indicator of kidney function? A. Serum potassium B. Urine protein C. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) D. BUN GFR is the most accurate reflection of renal filtration capacity. 65. Which of the following increases the risk of thrombus formation? A. Bradycardia B. High HDL C. Endothelial injury D. Hypotension Damage to the vascular endothelium promotes platelet adhesion and thrombus formation. 66. What is the hallmark feature of Hodgkin lymphoma? A. High white blood cell count B. Reed-Sternberg cells C. Philadelphia chromosome D. Elevated B
