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NSG 5003 Week 2 Quiz SOUTH UNIVERSITY LATEST 2025 FULLY SOLVED GRADED A+ 100% ACCURATE, Exams of Nursing

NSG 5003 Week 2 Quiz SOUTH UNIVERSITY LATEST 2025 FULLY SOLVED GRADED A+ 100% ACCURATE

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2024/2025

Available from 12/03/2024

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NSG5003
Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY
NSG 5003 Week 2 Quiz SOUTH UNIVERSITY LATEST 2025 FULLY
SOLVED GRADED A+ 100% ACCURATE
1. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an)
c.
Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
2. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
Anaphylaxis
3. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which
class of immunoglobulins?
IgE
4. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
IgE
5. Blood transfusion reactions are an example of:
Alloimmunity
6. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
c.
Eosinophils
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Download NSG 5003 Week 2 Quiz SOUTH UNIVERSITY LATEST 2025 FULLY SOLVED GRADED A+ 100% ACCURATE and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY

NSG 5003 Week 2 Quiz SOUTH UNIVERSITY LATEST 2025 FULLY

SOLVED GRADED A+ 100% ACCURATE

  1. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an) c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
  2. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: Anaphylaxis
  3. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE
  4. Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? IgE
  5. Blood transfusion reactions are an example of: Alloimmunity
  6. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? c. Eosinophils

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY

  1. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action? Histamine bound to H
  2. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? c. Greater quantities of IgE
  3. What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? d. Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
  4. When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by a. Complement-mediated cell lysis
  5. When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by: Phagocytosis in the spleen

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY

  1. In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of: Complement activation
  2. Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a. Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation
  3. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Zinc
  4. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? Alloimmunity
  5. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Systemic lupus erythematosus
  6. Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation? a. Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY

  1. Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type? Erythrocytes
  2. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies? A and B We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
  3. Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins? IgM
  4. Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast? T cells
  5. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? DiGeorge syndrome
  6. How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells? 6 to 8

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY

  1. A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following? No antigens We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
  2. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type I
  3. Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody? b. Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism
  4. When a tuberculin skin test is positive, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) T lymphocytes and Macrophages
  5. Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.) Poison Ivy, Neomycin, Nickel, Detergents
  6. Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Crohns, Addisons, Rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus

  1. Which statements best define acute rejection? (Select all that apply.) c. Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection. d. Acute rejection is associated with the body's response to an organ transplant. e. Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLAs a. Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response
  2. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? c. To prevent infection of the injured tissue
  3. How do surfactant proteins A through D provide innate resistance? b. Promote phagocytosis Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid? d. Sebaceous gland sebum

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. Complement cascade We have an expert-written solution to this problem! What is the vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? c. Vasodilation What is an outcome of the complement cascade? d. Lysis of bacterial cell membranes The function of opsonization related to the complement cascade is to: a. Tag of pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor? c. X

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor? Plasmin The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by: c. Directing leukocytes to the inflamed area What affect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H2) receptor have on inflammation? a. Inhibition Frequently when H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion? c. Antagonistically Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem? c. Underlying chronic illness(es) exists. Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and to cause leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY b. Histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation We have an expert-written solution to this problem! What is the role of a natural killer (NK) cells? b. Elimination of malignant cells Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells d. IFN-α ANS: D Only interferons (IFNs) are produced and released by virally infected cells in response to viral double-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA) IFN-α is secreted from which cells? c. Macrophages Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic? Ans: Fever and leukocytosis Exp: The three primary systemic changes associated with the acute infammatory response are fever, leukocytosis (a transient increase in circulating leukocytes), and increased levels in circulating plasma proteins.

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY The acute inflammatory response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by: a. Endogenous pyrogens What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage? a. Nonfunctioning scar tissue replaces destroyed tissue. The role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing is to: c. Synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins. A keloid is the result of which dysfunctional wound healing response? c. Collagen matrix assembly Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is healing by epithelialization? a. Normal saline

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Newborns often have deficiencies in collectin-like proteins, making them more susceptible to what type of infection? c. Respiratory Which cell is the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? a. Eosinophil Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? (Select all that apply.) Prostaglandins & Bradykinin We have an expert-written solution to this problem! Sebaceous glands protect the body from infection by secreting: (Select all that apply.) a. Antibacterial fatty acids b. Antifungal fatty acids d. Lactic acid Which body fluid has the ability to attack the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria? (Select all that apply.)

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY a. Perspiration c. Tears d. Saliva Only perspiration, tears, and saliva contain an enzyme (lysozyme) that attacks the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria. The main function of NK cells includes: (Select all that apply.) a. Recognizing virus-infected cells b. Eliminating virus-infected cells e. Eliminating previously identified cancer cells Normal bacterial flora found in the intestines produce vitamin K to assist in the absorption of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Calcium d. Iron e. Magnesium

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Skin e. Bladder Steps of Phagocytosis Opsonization is recognition and adherence of phagocytes to bacteria Phagosome is a small pseudopod that extend from plasma membrane and form vacuole or phagosome, carry out engulfment Engulfment is ingestion of phagosomes Fusion occurs with lysosomal granules within phagocyte Destruction is step which microorganism is killed and digested Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? c. Bone marrow What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? a.

Advanced Pathophysiology @2024 SOUTH UNIVERSITY Clonal diversity Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? b. Active-acquired immunity What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? a. Passive-acquired immunity The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? c. Epitope Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen? b. Foreignness When antigens are administered to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration considered?