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NSG 4100 FINAL EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+, Exams of Nursing

NSG 4100 FINAL EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM (JUST RELEASED)

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/17/2025

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NSG 4100 FINAL EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ |
VERIFIED ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM (JUST
RELEASED)
What would require immediate intervention for a patient with head trauma?
---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ CSF drainage: meningitis
infection can occur
- A depressed fracture - require surgery within 24 hrs
- A battle sign (bruising over the mastoid bone)
- Pts who pees ALOT - indicate dilute urine --> DI
- GCS - score <8
- Decorticate and Decerebrate posturing
- Changes in pupils
What would require immediate intervention for a patient with TBIs? ---------
CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Dolls eyes (dilation of eyes), fixation of
pupils, paralysis of extremity ---> indicate herniation
- When Turing pt head to one side, and if eyes turn into the same direction
= bad response
- opposite direction = normal response
Clinical manifestations that require immediate intervention for acute SDH? -
--------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Coma, increase BP, decreased
HR, slow RR
What emergency procedure would be preformed for a patient with a
epidural hematoma? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Burr holes -
release blood accumulated in the between the skull and dura bc it can
cause neurological deficits and respiratory arrest
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Download NSG 4100 FINAL EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NSG 4100 FINAL EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+ |

VERIFIED ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM (JUST

RELEASED)

What would require immediate intervention for a patient with head trauma? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ CSF drainage: meningitis infection can occur

  • A depressed fracture - require surgery within 24 hrs
  • A battle sign (bruising over the mastoid bone)
  • Pts who pees ALOT - indicate dilute urine --> DI
  • GCS - score <
  • Decorticate and Decerebrate posturing
  • Changes in pupils What would require immediate intervention for a patient with TBIs? --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Dolls eyes (dilation of eyes), fixation of pupils, paralysis of extremity ---> indicate herniation
  • When Turing pt head to one side, and if eyes turn into the same direction = bad response
    • opposite direction = normal response Clinical manifestations that require immediate intervention for acute SDH? - --------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Coma, increase BP, decreased HR, slow RR What emergency procedure would be preformed for a patient with a epidural hematoma? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Burr holes - release blood accumulated in the between the skull and dura bc it can cause neurological deficits and respiratory arrest

Early s/s of increased ICP ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ change in LOC - earliest

  • disorientation, restlessness, increased respiratory effort (Kussmals), purposeless movements, mental confusion,
  • pupillary changes and impaired extraocular movements

Late s/s of increased ICP (vital sign changes) ---------CORRECT ANSWER- ----------------- Cushing's Triad - bradycardia, bradypnea, widen pulse pressure (increased systolic, decreased diastolic_

  • increased BP and temp Late signs of increased ICP ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ patient becomes erratic
  • GCS score <
  • LOC continues to deteriorate
  • Chain-stokes (rhythmic waxing and waning of ate and depth with brief episodes of apnea
  • Ataxic breathing - irregular breathing with random deep and shallow breath
  • projectile vomiting
  • hemiplegia
  • decorticate
  • decerebrate
  • flaccidity before death
  • loss of brain stem reflexes: pupillary, corneal, gag, and swallowing reflexes are not present (signs of approaching death) Normal ICP pressure ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- 5 - 15 mmHg

What are complication of craniotomy? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ------- increased ICP

  • bleeding from site
  • CSF leakage - emergency
  • infections - assess with REEDA
  • DI
  • SIADH
  • seizures What pt are more susceptible to opportunistic variations of meningitis? ------ ---CORRECT ANSWER------------------ college students
  • Millitary personal
  • dense community groups
  • those who have not been vaccinated before
  • tobacco users
  • pt who have upper viral respiratory infections
  • have otitis media
  • pts with immune deficiencies
  • pt with mastoiditis
  • Aseptic meningitis can effect pt with (cancer, HIV, AIDS, weaken immune system Care of a client with encephalitis from herpes simplex? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Acyclovir - early administration, continues for 3 weeks
  • comfort measures to reduce headaches: cluster care, dim lights, limit noise, and visitors, administer analgesics, place pt further away from the nurses station
  • monitor for changes in LOC
  • seizure precautions

Care of a client with encephalitis from arthropod-Borne virus? --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ No TX; but report to the local health department

  • if fever and headache - tx at home
  • if very ill - tx at the hospital
  • assess neurological status Q1H - identifies deterioration and improvement of the condition
  • fall and seizure precautions Prevention education for arthropod-Borne virus ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ wear clothing that provides covering
  • insect repellent on clothing and skin in high areas
  • remain indoors at dawn and dusk
  • remove standing water What occurs during HuntingtonS disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------a genetic chronic, progressive that cause premature death of brain cells that help to control voluntary (intentional) movement
  • causes muscle Spasticity Medical management for Huntington disease? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ No tx or revertive of underlying process
  • Tx the symptoms
  • Tp tx chorea - tetrabenzine, bentos, neuroleptic drugs
  • to tx Akathisia (motor restlessness) - occurs when pt is over medicated, decrease drug causing symtoms
  • To tx rigidity - antiparkinsons meds (Levodopa)
  • To control psychiatric symptoms - fluoxitive, amitriptyline Nursing intervention for patient with Hungtions disease that are at risk for falls? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ pad sides of bed
  • padded heals and elbow protectors
  • do not isolate pt by ceasing communication with them Nursing interventions for pt with Huntington's disease who have acute confusion and impaired socialization ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----- reorient the pt after awaking
  • have a clock, calendar, wall poster to assist with orientation
  • one-on-one contact
  • use music for relaxation
  • The pt wears a medical ID bracelet
  • Keep PT in the social mainstream
  • recruit and train volunteers for social interaction
  • do not isolate pt by ceasing communication with them What happen during Myasthenia Gravis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------An autoimmune disorder affecting the myoneural junction that is characterized by varying degrees of Muscle weakness of the voluntary muscle With myasthenia gravis, pyridostigmine bromide worked if? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------There is improved muscle strength, control of fatigue, and improved ADLs
  • Medication must be given on time; delayed administration may exacerbate muscle weakness and make it impossible for pt to take meds orally What are adverse effects of anticholinergics ---------CORRECT ANSWER--- --------------diarrhea, abd cramps, excessive saliva Other txs for myasthenia gravis ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ immunosuppressive (decreased production of antibody)
  • corticosteroids (prednisone)
  • Cytotoxic meds (Azathioprine)
  • IVIG (tx exacerbations)
  • Plasmapheresis - tx exacerbations
  • Thymectomy - can result in complete remission , but can take up to 3 years to take affect what drug should be avoided in myasthenia gravis ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Procaine What is fibromyalgia ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------it is a chronic pain syndrome that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, stiffness, sleep disturbances, and functional impairment What are assessment findings of fibromyalgia ---------CORRECT ANSWER- ----------------- chronic pain
  • chronic fatigue
  • generalized muscle aching
  • stiffness
  • sleep disturbances
  • functional impairment Predisposing factors for fibromyalgia ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----- female gender
  • anxiety
  • depression
  • physical trauma
  • emotional stress
  • sleep disorders
  • viral infections

education pt with multiple sclerosis to prevent falls ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ walk with feet apart to widen the base to support and increase walking stability

  • if loss of position instruct pt to watch feet while walking
  • gait training with assistive device
  • for incoordination and tremors use weighted wrist weights
  • pt is trained in transfer and ADLs expected outcomes for patents with a complete spinal cord injury --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------signifies loss of both sensory and voluntary motor communication from brain to peripherally, resulting in paraplegia or tetraplegia expected outcomes for patients with an incomplete spinal cord lesion --------
  • CORRECT ANSWER-----------------denotes the ability of the spinal cord to relay messages to and from the brain
  • sensory and motor function is preserved below the lesion expected outcomes for patient with central cord lesions ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------motor deficits in upper extremities compared to lower
  • sensory loss in upper extremities, bowel and bladder dysfunction is variable or completely preserved expected outcomes for patient with an anterior cord lesion --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ loss of pain, temp, and motor function below level of lesions
  • light touch, position, and vibration sensation remain intact

expected outcomes for patient with a lateral cord injury ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ipsilateral paralysis or paresis together with ipsilateral loss of touch, pressure, vibration, and contralateral loss of pain and temp Nursing management for pts in emergent burn care ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ insertion of indwelling cathether

  • monitor temp: hypothermia develops rapidly
  • NG tube inserted and low intermittent suction for burns greater than 20% or 25% TBSA
  • increased BP and HR: not good indicators due to inflammatory response
  • monitor circulation
  • to assess BP. - apply clean dressing under cuff to protect from contamination
  • elevate burn extremities - reduces edema
  • recolored urine
  • glycosuria What are the priorities for the acute phase of burns? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ wound care and closure
  • prevention and treatment of complications (infections)
  • daily nutritional support How long does the acute phase last? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------ ----- 48 - 72 hrs after the burn
  • from beginning of diuresis to near completion of wound care After 48hrs after burns what occurs? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----- airway obstruction caused bu upper respiratory edema
  • diureses pf large amount of urine with a low specific gravity
  • hyperthermia is normal, their is a resetting of the core temp

Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to promote skin integrity ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ report to PCP if any changes occur

  • assessment includes: size, color, odor, presence of eschar, exudate, epithelia buds, bleeding, granulation tissue, status of graft, healing of donor site, and condition of surrounding skin Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to relieve pain and discomfort ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ "pat, don't scratch" - to relieve post burn pruritis
  • Lack of sleep Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to promote physical mobility ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ encourage early ambulation
  • edema, contractions and hypertrophic scarring Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to strengthen and cope ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ tried, depression, anger, regression, manipulative behaviors, feeling of anger are common
  • at this point pts, face the reality of burn injury Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to support pt and family process ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ disrupted family roles
  • psychological, economic, and social impact on pt and family

Nursing interventions for pts during acute burn phase to monitor and manage complications ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ acute respiratory failure

  • ARDS
  • common signs f hypoxia, diminished breath sounds, wheezing, tachypnea, stridor, sputum tinged with soot (sloughed tracheal issues)
  • HF, pulmonary edema
  • hypermetabolism (tachycardia, tachypnea, elevated temp)
  • delirium How long does the rehabilitation phase last? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-- ---------------- after the burn occurs to years
  • from major wound closure to return to individuals optimal level of physical and psychosocial adjustments What are the priorities for the rehabilitation phase of burns --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ prevention and tx of scars and contractures
  • physical, occupational, and vocational rehabilitation
  • functional and cosmetics reconstruction
  • psychological conseling What psychosocial symptoms will pts experience during rehabilitation state of burns ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ the reality and impact of injury begin to set in as pt recognize that survival is expected
  • devastating grief nd loss
  • PTSD
  • reintegration to home, community, schools, or workplace Partial thickness wounds ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------heal without scar

prevention and tx of scars ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ application of personalized elastic pressures bandages

  • these help promote looseness of colleges bundles and encourages parallel orientation of the college to skin sirface
  • these must be worn for 23hrs and remove when bathing and wound care only characteristics of first degree burns (Superficial wounds) ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ can be caused by sunburns, low-intensity flash, or superficial scald
  • involves the epidermis
  • apperception reddened, blanches with pressure, dry minimal or no edema, with possible blister
  • can present with tingling, hypesthesia, pain that is soothed by Colin, with peeling, and itching
  • recovers within a few days, may use orals pain meds, cool compress
  • skin lubrication and topical antimicrobial agents not indicates Characteristic of Second degree burns (partial thickness wounds) ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ can be caused by scalds, flash flames, or by contact
  • involves the epidermis portion of the dermis
  • appearance blistered, mottles red base, with disrupted epidermis, with weeping surface, and edema
  • presents with pain, hypesthesia, and sensitivity to air currents
  • it recovers in about 2-3 weeks, some scarring and depigmentation possible, and may require some grafting Characteristics of third degree burns (Full thickness burns) ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ caused by flames, prolonged exposure to hot liquids, electric currents, chemical, or contact exposure
  • involves the epidermis, dermis, and may involve connective tissue and muscle
  • appears as dry, pale white, red-brown, lethargy, or charred skin; has coagulated vessels that may be visible and presents with edema
  • presents as insensate, shock, myoglobinuria (red pigment in urine), possible hemolysis, with possible contact points (entrance and exit wounds in electrical burns)
  • is tx what eschar removal, grafting is necessary, scarring and loss of contour and function forth degree burns (full thickness burns) ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ caused by prolonged exposure or high-voltage injuries
  • involves deep tissue, muscle, and bone
  • the appearance of charred skin
  • presents as shock, myoglobinuria, and hemolysis
  • Is TX with amputations likely, grafting of no benefit given the depth and severity of wounds What is the goal of mechanical wound debridement ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ remove devitalized (eschar) tissue or burn eschar in preparation or grafting and wound healing
  • removal of tissue contaminated by bacteria and foreign bodies, thereby protecting the pt from invasion of bacteria What is expected in mechanical wound debridement ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ surgical tools are use to separate and remove eschar
  • it is performed by PP, trained nurse, pt during routine dressing changes
  • bleeding is normal, apply hemostatic agent or apply pressure to relieve
  • wet-to-wet, or wet-to-moist dressing changes
  • assess distal pulses for perfusion
  • urinary output or normal or decreased
    • N/V, diarrhea, decreased GI motility
  • rising bilirubin a
  • decreased PLT count
  • increased serum glucose and insulin resistance
  • confusion and agitation
  • increased: lactate level, WBC, CRP, prolactin level Manifestations during the progressive stage in septic shock --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ BP does not respond to fluid resuscitation
  • AKI
  • pulmonary dysfunction Manifestations when septic shock has occured ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ decreased BP
  • skins cool, pale, mottled
  • temperature is normal or decreased
  • tachycardia
  • tachypnea
    • no urine production
  • death What to complete during the first hour of the sepsis bundle --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ measure lactate level
  • obtain blood cultures prior to administration of antibiotics
  • administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • begin rapid administration of 30ml/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate levels greater than 4mol/L
  • administer vasopressors if pt is hypotensive during or after fluid resuscitation with MAP > 65

What to complete within 3 hours of the sepsis bundle ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ obtain lactate level

  • obtain blood cultures prior to amministration of antibiotics
  • administer prescribed broad-spectrum antiobiotics
  • initiate aggressive fluid resuscitation in pt with hypotensive and elevate serum lactate levels greater than 4mmol/L What to complete ASAP or within 6hrs of patient presents with sepsis symptoms ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ begin vasopressors agents if hypotension is not relieve and MAP <65, after initial resucitation
  • if hypotension persist or initial lactate is >4, reassess IV volume status, ad tissue perfusion Additional intervention in the sepsis bundle for early management --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------ assess urinary output of >0.5ml/kg/hr over a 6hr period
  • administer vasopressors - if no response, amdninster norepinephrine 1st
  • obtain blood, sputum, urine, wound cultures prior to administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • supplemental oxygen and mechanical ventilation
  • transfuse with PRBC if hgb <7 (goal is 7-9)
  • provide adequate IV sedation and analgesia
  • control glucose <180 with IV insulin
  • prevent DVTs with prophylaxis therapy
  • advanced care planning What are the 3 Stages of shock? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ Compensatory
  • Progressive
  • Irreversible