Download NSG 1110 NSG1110 Fundamentals of Practical Nursing (PN) – Skills Check-Off Questions And C and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NSG 1110 NSG11 10 Fundamentals of Practical Nursing (PN) –
Skills Check-Off Questions And Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download PDF
1. What is the first step before performing any nursing skill on a patient? A. Apply gloves B. Check vital signs C. Identify the patient using two identifiers D. Explain the procedure to the family Rationale: Patient identification using two identifiers ensures safety and compliance with legal and ethical standards. 2. Which PPE is essential when performing oral care on an unconscious patient? A. Sterile gloves B. Surgical mask C. Gloves and face shield D. Shoe covers Rationale: Oral care on an unconscious patient risks splashing, requiring gloves and a face shield. 3. The nurse must document intake and output (I&O) every shift. Which of the following is considered output? A. Emesis B. IV fluids administered C. Soup consumed
D. Ice chips Rationale: Emesis is a measurable fluid loss and part of output.
4. What is the appropriate angle for inserting a needle during an intramuscular (IM) injection? A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees Rationale: IM injections are given at a 90-degree angle to reach the muscle layer. 5. Which pulse site is preferred in emergency situations? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Carotid D. Femoral Rationale: The carotid artery is closest to the heart and easiest to palpate in emergencies. 6. The nurse should place a patient in what position for a rectal suppository? A. Left lateral Sims’ B. Prone C. Supine D. High Fowler's Rationale: Left Sims' position allows gravity and anatomy to aid suppository insertion.
10. Which is the most reliable method for verifying the placement of an NG tube? A. Ask the patient B. Inject air and auscultate C. X-ray confirmation D. Check for gastric content Rationale: X-ray is the gold standard for verifying NG tube placement. 11. What position helps prevent aspiration in a patient receiving enteral feedings? A. High Fowler’s B. Supine C. Dorsal recumbent D. Trendelenburg Rationale: High Fowler’s keeps the head elevated, reducing aspiration risk. 12. What is the best site for IM injections in adults? A. Deltoid B. Ventrogluteal C. Dorsogluteal D. Forearm Rationale: Ventrogluteal site is safest due to fewer nerves and vessels. 13. Which of the following findings requires immediate nursing intervention? A. BP 118/ B. Respirations 8/min
C. HR 88 bpm D. Temp 37.1°C Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is dangerously low and needs prompt action.
14. How often should a nurse assess circulation in a limb with a cast? A. Every shift B. Every 1–2 hours C. Once a day D. Every 8 hours Rationale: Frequent neurovascular checks ensure early detection of impaired circulation. 15. When applying a condom catheter, what should be avoided? A. Applying adhesive tape directly to the skin B. Leaving space at the tip C. Cleaning the penis D. Securing the catheter Rationale: Tape can constrict blood flow and damage the skin. 16. The "six rights" of medication administration include all EXCEPT: A. Right patient B. Right physician C. Right time D. Right documentation
B. Clear liquids C. Carbonated drinks D. Raw vegetables Rationale: Thickened liquids reduce aspiration risk in patients with swallowing difficulties.
21. What is the nurse's priority action after discovering a fire in a patient’s room? A. Call 911 B. Activate the alarm C. Close the door D. Remove the patient Rationale: RACE protocol prioritizes removing the patient to safety first. 22. When using a cane, the patient should: A. Hold it on the stronger side B. Hold it on the weaker side C. Move the cane with the strong leg D. Keep both hands free Rationale: The cane supports the weak side by being held on the strong side. 23. The most accurate temperature route for critically ill patients is: A. Oral B. Axillary C. Rectal
D. Tympanic Rationale: Rectal temperature is closest to core body temperature.
24. What is the normal range for an adult’s oxygen saturation (SpO₂)? A. 88–92% B. 90–94% C. 95–100% D. 85–89% Rationale: An SpO₂ between 95–100% is considered normal in healthy adults. 25. A post-op patient’s dressing is saturated. What should the nurse do first? A. Apply pressure and notify the provider B. Change the dressing C. Document findings only D. Discard the dressing Rationale: Excess bleeding may indicate hemorrhage and requires pressure and provider notification. 26. What position helps facilitate breathing in a patient with COPD? A. Tripod position B. Supine C. Left lateral D. Lithotomy Rationale: Tripod positioning expands the chest and aids breathing in COPD patients.
D. Apply after walking Rationale: Applying in the morning prevents venous pooling before standing.
31. Which step is essential before administering a medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube? A. Have the patient drink water B. Check tube placement C. Flush with 100 mL of water D. Tilt the patient flat Rationale: Verifying placement ensures the medication enters the stomach and not the lungs. 32. Which technique is best for cleaning around a wound with a sterile solution? A. Clean from the center outward B. Clean from outer to inner edge C. Use a circular motion over the whole wound D. Clean dry to wet Rationale: Cleaning from the center outward prevents dragging contaminants into the wound. 33. What gauge needle is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection? A. 18-gauge B. 25-gauge C. 20-gauge D. 16-gauge
Rationale: A 25-gauge needle is commonly used for subcutaneous injections like insulin.
34. A patient begins to fall while ambulating. What should the nurse do? A. Hold the patient upright B. Lower the patient gently to the floor C. Call for help immediately D. Pull the patient up by their arms Rationale: Safely lowering the patient prevents injury to both patient and nurse. 35. The nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Which step is correct? A. Place drops on the cornea B. Place drops in the conjunctival sac C. Apply to the sclera D. Ask the patient to keep eyes open Rationale: The conjunctival sac is the correct site to avoid damaging the cornea. 36. When removing gloves, the nurse should: A. Grasp the outside of one glove with the other gloved hand B. Use sterile scissors C. Turn gloves inside out while still wearing them D. Touch inside of both gloves Rationale: Grasping the outer glove prevents contaminating bare skin. 37. Before inserting a Foley catheter in a female patient, what is the best position? A. Supine with legs straight
41. When should surgical asepsis be used? A. During oral care B. During catheter insertion C. While giving injections D. When feeding a patient Rationale: Surgical asepsis is required for invasive sterile procedures like catheter insertion. 42. To assess for cyanosis in a dark-skinned patient, the nurse should check: A. Cheeks B. Arms C. Mucous membranes and nail beds D. Back Rationale: Cyanosis is best detected in areas with less pigmentation like mucosa and nail beds. 43. The nurse notes a Stage II pressure ulcer. What is a defining feature? A. Partial thickness skin loss B. Full thickness tissue loss with visible bone C. Intact skin with redness D. Closed wound with drainage Rationale: Stage II involves partial thickness loss, such as blister or shallow ulcer. 44. How should the nurse clean dentures? A. In boiling water B. In lukewarm water over a towel-lined sink
C. In cold water with bleach D. Using sterile technique Rationale: Dentures should be cleaned gently with lukewarm water over a towel to prevent breakage.
45. When documenting a wound, which of the following should be included? A. Patient’s mood B. Size, color, drainage, and odor C. Type of dressing used D. Nurse’s opinion Rationale: Documentation must include objective wound characteristics. 46. Which action is correct when donning sterile gloves? A. Touch the outside of both gloves B. Touch only the inside of the first glove C. Lay gloves on your lap D. Blow into gloves to expand them Rationale: Touching only the inside of the first glove prevents contamination. 47. A patient on fall precautions needs to use the restroom. The nurse should: A. Tell the patient to wait B. Call for a lift team C. Assist the patient and stay nearby D. Give them a bedpan without assessment Rationale: Assisting and staying nearby helps maintain safety while respecting dignity.
B. Discontinue the IV C. Apply more tape D. Flush the IV Rationale: Wetness may indicate infiltration or leakage, requiring IV removal.
52. Which site is best for a capillary glucose test? A. Palm B. Forearm C. Center of fingertip D. Side of fingertip Rationale: The side of the fingertip is less painful and still provides good blood flow. 53. How often should a nurse reposition a patient at risk for pressure ulcers? A. Every 4 hours B. Once per shift C. Every 2 hours D. When patient requests Rationale: Repositioning every 2 hours helps prevent pressure injuries. 54. What action ensures accurate blood pressure measurement? A. Place the cuff over clothing B. Use the correct cuff size C. Pump to 120 mmHg always D. Measure on the leg Rationale: The wrong cuff size can give false readings; size must match arm circumference.
55. When applying a hot compress, the nurse should: A. Check the temperature and protect the skin B. Apply it directly to the skin C. Leave it on for hours D. Use boiling water Rationale: Temperature and protection are essential to prevent burns. 56. What is the best way to verify a patient’s identity before giving medication? A. Ask their age B. Check name and date of birth with wristband C. Ask their roommate D. Call them by name Rationale: Two identifiers (e.g., name and DOB) matched to the wristband is safest. 57. Which urine sample is best for a culture? A. Random sample B. 24-hour urine C. Clean catch midstream D. First urine in the morning Rationale: Midstream clean catch avoids contamination and is ideal for cultures. 58. A patient has a red, blistered heel. What stage pressure ulcer is this? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III
C. Surgical mask D. Isolation gown Rationale: Hand hygiene is the foundation of all infection control under standard precautions.
63. What is the safest way to confirm placement of a Foley catheter in the bladder? A. Patient says they feel it B. Observe urine flow into tubing C. Feel for resistance D. Flush catheter Rationale: Seeing urine return confirms proper placement. 64. What action is taken after removing soiled gloves? A. Dispose and proceed B. Perform hand hygiene C. Apply new gloves D. Touch the next patient Rationale: Hand hygiene must be performed after removing gloves to prevent contamination. 65. What does it mean when a medication order says “PRN”? A. Give immediately B. Give every 4 hours C. Give as needed D. Give with food
Rationale: PRN means the medication is administered based on the patient’s needs.
66. Which nursing action prevents urinary tract infections? A. Encouraging low fluid intake B. Infrequent catheter care C. Perineal care from front to back D. Wiping side to side Rationale: Wiping front to back prevents bacteria from the rectum entering the urinary tract. 67. To prevent aspiration during oral care for an unconscious patient, place them in: A. Supine position B. Semi-Fowler’s C. Prone D. Side-lying position Rationale: Side-lying position allows secretions to drain from the mouth, reducing aspiration risk. 68. The nurse must verify which of the following before administering a blood transfusion? A. Patient identification and blood type B. Blood bag temperature C. Weight of the patient D. Physician’s full name
