Docsity
Log inSign up
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search Store documents

The best documents sold by students who completed their studies

Search through all study resources
Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

University Rankings

Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

From our blog

Exams and Study
Go to the blog

NR511 Final Test 2025: Multiple Choice Questions with Solutions, Exams of Nursing

Chamberlain College of NursingNursing

A series of multiple-choice questions covering various medical topics relevant to the nr511 course. Each question includes a correct answer, providing a valuable resource for students preparing for their final exam. The questions cover a wide range of medical conditions, including anemia, spinal stenosis, osteoporosis, gout, thyroid dysfunction, and more. This document can be used as a study guide to reinforce understanding of key concepts and prepare for the final exam.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 02/11/2025

prof_dave
prof_dave 🇺🇸

2

(4)

3.7K documents

1 / 41

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
Page | 1
NR511 FINAL TEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT SOLUTIONS
| GUARANTEED SUCCESS.
1. Which of the following conditions, which may be detected by a complete
blood count, has sufficient prevalence to make early detection
beneficial?
A. Anemia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Leukemia - correct answer - A. Anemia
2. Sam, age 73, has lumbar spinal stenosis and asks which exercises he
should do to help his condition. You advise him to
A. do any exercise that results in hyperextension of the lumbar spine.
B. do exercises that encourage lumbar flexion and flattening of the
lumbar lordotic curve.
C. refrain from exercising.
D. see a surgeon because surgery is the best treatment option. -
correct answer - B. do exercises that encourage lumbar flexion and
flattening of the lumbar lordotic curve.
3. Shelley, 65 years old, sees you for the first time. She has demonstrated
osteopenia on a bone density test, and you have prescribed the
appropriate medication for her. What additional lifestyle changes should
you counsel for this client?
A. She should begin a rigorous swimming program to actively build
bone.
B. She should cut down on coffee, but tea is okay.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29

Partial preview of the text

Download NR511 Final Test 2025: Multiple Choice Questions with Solutions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NR511 FINAL TEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM

QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT SOLUTIONS

| GUARANTEED SUCCESS.

  1. Which of the following conditions, which may be detected by a complete blood count, has sufficient prevalence to make early detection beneficial? A. Anemia B. Leukocytosis C. Thrombocytopenia D. Leukemia - correct answer - A. Anemia
  2. Sam, age 73, has lumbar spinal stenosis and asks which exercises he should do to help his condition. You advise him to A. do any exercise that results in hyperextension of the lumbar spine. B. do exercises that encourage lumbar flexion and flattening of the lumbar lordotic curve. C. refrain from exercising. D. see a surgeon because surgery is the best treatment option. - correct answer - B. do exercises that encourage lumbar flexion and flattening of the lumbar lordotic curve.
  3. Shelley, 65 years old, sees you for the first time. She has demonstrated osteopenia on a bone density test, and you have prescribed the appropriate medication for her. What additional lifestyle changes should you counsel for this client? A. She should begin a rigorous swimming program to actively build bone. B. She should cut down on coffee, but tea is okay.

C. She needs to take a multivitamin every day. D. She should begin weight training. - correct answer - D. She should begin weight training.

  1. You are teaching a client about his gout. Which of the following should you include in your teaching? A. Once gout is treated, there is no danger of permanent damage. B. Diet and alcohol consumption may remain the same. C. Drink at least 1 quart of fluid per day. D. Kidney stones and kidney damage may result if gout is not adequately managed. - correct answer - D. Kidney stones and kidney damage may result if gout is not adequately managed.
  2. An area of deep abrasion, including a "road burn," on the left forearm is best treated by doing which of the following? A. Icing the wound after irrigation B. Cleansing it several times a day and leaving it open to air C. Prescribing prophylactic antibiotic therapy D. Removing ground-in dirt using forceps - correct answer - C. Prescribing prophylactic antibiotic therapy
  3. Jill is perimenopausal and asks you about the relationship between exercise and preventing osteoporosis. You tell her that A. exercise has no effect; she should take calcium supplements. B. weight-bearing exercise prevents bone mass loss. C. all types of exercise assist in preventing osteoporosis. D. since she was very athletic during her formative years, her bones will maintain their bone mass. - correct answer - B. weight-bearing exercise prevents bone mass loss.
  1. Eric, age 52, has gout. What do you suggest? A. Using salicylates for an acute attack B. Limiting consumption of purine-rich foods C. Testing his uric acid level every 6 months D. Decreasing fluid intake - correct answer - B. Limiting consumption of purine-rich foods
  2. Gouty pain in the great toe is A. toe gout. B. hyperuricemia of the toe. C. Podagra - correct answer - C. Podagra
  3. Which of the following signs of thyroid dysfunction in a 49-year-old patient is a sign of hyperthyroidism? A. Slow pulse B. Decreased systolic BP C. Exophthalmos D. Dry, coarse, cool skin - correct answer - C. Exophthalmos
  4. Food sources rich in iron include A. potatoes; bananas; and green, leafy vegetables. B. enriched grain cereals, cabbage, and sweet potatoes. C. liver, red meats, prunes, apples, and raisins. D. enriched grain cereals, strawberries, watermelon, and honeydew melons. - correct answer - C. liver, red meats, prunes, apples, and raisins.
  1. Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphocytic leukemia. He is at increased risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when he becomes an adult? A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Brain tumor C. Liver cancer D. Esophageal cancer - correct answer - B. Brain tumor
  2. Why is parathyroid hormone secretion increased during pregnancy? A. To meet the increased stress demands on the mother B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth C. To help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus D. To help promote neurological g - correct answer - B. To meet the increased requirements for calcium and vitamin D for fetal skeletal growth
  3. What is the name of the test used to assess for nerve- root compression? A. The Apley scratch test B. The drop arm test C. Finkelstein's test D. Spurling's maneuver - correct answer - D. Spurling's maneuver
  4. Mr. Hughes is a 46-year-old African American man who is in your primary care office for a physical examination. You recommend which of the following as screening for prostate cancer? A. A digital rectal examination (DRE) B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older - correct answer - B. None; there is no conclusive evidence for screening until age 75 and older

B. increased absorption of the fat-soluble vitamin D. C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids. D. decreased magnesium absorption.. - correct answer - C. the binding of calcium and magnesium in the intestinal lumen by unabsorbed dietary fatty acids.

  1. Decreased bladder capacity; bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection, tumor, stones, or irritants such as caffeine and alcohol; and central nervous system disorders or spinal cord lesions are all contributing factors to A. stress urinary incontinence. B. urge urinary incontinence. C. overflow urinary incontinence. D. reflex urinary incontinence. - correct answer - B. urge urinary incontinence.
  2. Samuel wants his newborn son to be circumcised, but it is noted that the baby has hypospadias. What do you tell Samuel? A. "Your son should be circumcised as soon as possible." B. "Wait until your son is 1 month old; then he can be circumcised." C. "We first have to check to see where the opening is; then we can determine if your son can be circumcised or not." D. "Your son should not be circumcised." - correct answer - D. "Your son should not be circumcised."
  3. Which of the following would be a considered the highest risk factor for the development of testicular cancer? A. Cryptorchidism B. Caucasian race

C. HIV infection D. Hormonal imbalance in utero - correct answer - A. Cryptorchidism

  1. Jeff, age 20, presents to the college health clinic with complaints of difficulty passing his urine and a discharge from his penis. Upon further investigation, you note that the discharge is urethral in origin. The most common cause of these symptoms in the young adult male population is A. chronic prostatitis. B. prostatic abscess. C. acute prostatitis. D. prostatic hypertrophy. - correct answer - C. acute prostatitis.
  2. Bernard, age 59, presents to the emergency department with a diagnosis of priapism. Despite application of cold compresses and pain medications, relief is unsuccessful. What is the treatment of choice? A. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora cavernosa C. Doxazosin 5 mg sublingually D. Lidocaine 1% via the glans - correct answer - B. Phenylephrine injection 0.3 to 0.5 mL into the corpora cavernosa
  3. You are referring a 73- year- old client for management of his prostate cancer with hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of androgen ablation by A. blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). - correct answer - blocking the release of follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
  1. What is the most common prostatitis syndrome found in males of any age? A. Nonbacterial prostatitis B. Prostatodynia C. Acute bacterial prostatitis D. Chronic bacterial prostatitis - correct answer - A. Nonbacterial prostatitis
  2. Bloody penile discharge is most likely to be associated with which of the following? A. Cancer of the penis B. Herpes zoster C. Epididymitis D. Peyronie's disease - correct answer - C. Epididymitis
  3. The most common gram- negative bacteria that causes both acute and chronic bacterial prostatitis is A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Klebsiella. C. Escherichia coli. D. Enterobacteriaceae. - correct answer - C. Escherichia coli.
  4. A history of urinary tract infections in males is often seen in men with chronic bacterial prostatitis. Other signs and symptoms of chronic bacterial prostatitis include A. irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain. B. nausea and vomiting, as well as fever. C. loss of appetite and weight loss.

C. irritative voiding symptoms, inability to ambulate, and fever. - correct answer - A. irritative voiding symptoms, low back pain, and perineal pain.

  1. The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends against prostate- specific antigen (PSA)-based screening for prostate cancer. They grade the evidence related to PSA screening as A. A B. B C. C D. D - correct answer - D.D
  2. When performing a prostate examination, the nurse practitioner notes a tender, warm prostate. What would be the most likely differential diagnosis? A. Benign prostatic hypertrophy B. Prostatic abscess C. Prostate cancer D. Bacterial prostatitis - correct answer - D. Bacterial prostatitis
  3. Jordan, age 32, appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion. Which test should be the provider's first choice? A. X- ray B. Ultrasound C. Technetium scan D. Physical examination - correct answer - B. Ultrasound
  1. In older adult males, which of the following is the most common cause of nocturia? A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) B. Diminished bladder capacity C. Habit D. Overflow incontinence - correct answer - A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
  2. Mrs. Thomas, age 69, comes to your office for the results of her DEXA scan. She reports that her mother had osteopenia before she died. The DEXA scan result shows a T score of −2.7 in the hip and −2. in the spine. You explain to her that her results show A. normal bone density. B. osteopenia. C. osteoporosis. - correct answer - C. osteoporosis.
  3. Jill, age 49, has recently begun a rigorous weight- lifting regimen. She presents to the primary care office with a shoulder dislocation. Which of the following clinical manifestations lead the nurse practitioner to suspect an anterior shoulder dislocation over a posterior dislocation? A. Inability to shrug the shoulder B. Absence of pain C. Inability to rotate the shoulder externally D. Shortening of the arm - correct answer - A. Inability to shrug the shoulder
  4. The most common cause of cauda equina syndrome is

A. fracture. B. hematoma. C. lumbar intervertebral disk herniation. D. space- occupying lesion. - correct answer - C. lumbar intervertebral disk herniation.

  1. Gout is caused by urate crystals being deposited in certain joints leading to acute pain, erythema and edema. Gout typically occurs most often in the joint of the A. foot. B. wrist. C. elbow. D. finger. - correct answer - A. foot.
  2. Bone mineral density (BMD) testing is recommended by the National Osteoporosis Foundation for which of the following client populations to assess whether they are at high risk for osteoporosis? A. All women age 65 and older regardless of risk factors B. All men age 65 and older regardless of risk factors C. All women in their 30s for a baseline D. All women of menopausal age. - correct answer - A. All women age 65 and older regardless of risk factors
  3. In assessing an infant for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the practitioner places the infant supine, flexes the knees by holding the thumbs on the inner mid- thighs, with fingers outside on the hips touching the greater trochanters, stabilizes one hip, and abducts and gently pulls anteriorly on the other thigh. If this external rotation feels smooth with no sound present, there is no hip dislocation. This is A. the Allis test.

B. is an injury to the tendons that attach to the muscles in a joint. C. is an injury resulting in extensive tears of the muscles. D. is an injury that does not result in joint instability.. - correct answer - A. is an injury to the ligaments that attach to bones in a joint.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a management principal for an acute musculoskeletal injury that does not require emergent treatment? A. RICE B. NSAIDs or acetaminophen C. Imaging studies D. Skeletal muscle relaxants. - correct answer - C. Imaging studies
  2. Lillian, age 70, was told that she has osteoporosis. When she asks you what this is, you respond that osteoporosis A. develops when loss of bone occurs more rapidly than new bone growth. B. is a degenerative joint disease characterized by loss of cartilage in certain joints.. - correct answer - A. develops when loss of bone occurs more rapidly than new bone growth.
  3. Colchicine may be used to terminate an acute attack of gouty arthritis as well as to prevent recurrent episodes. The mechanism of action is to A. interrupt the cycle of urate crystal deposition and inflammatory response. B. increase serum uric acid levels. C. potentiate the excretion of uric acid. D. inhibit the tubular reabsorption of urate, promoting the excretion of uric acid. - correct answer - A. interrupt the cycle of urate crystal deposition and inflammatory response.
  1. To aid in the diagnosis of meniscus damage, which test should a nurse practitioner perform? A. The bulge test B. The Lachman test C. The drawer test D. Apley's compression test - correct answer - D. Apley's compression test
  2. Upon assessment, the nurse practitioner notes unilateral back pain that had an acute onset and increases when standing and bending. A straight- leg test is negative. The most likely differential diagnosis is A. herniated nucleus pulposus. B. muscle strain. C. osteoarthritis. D. spondylolisthesis. - correct answer - A. herniated nucleus pulposus.
  3. The straight leg-raising maneuver can be used to diagnose A. nerve root compression. B. a fractured hip. C. an anterior cruciate ligament tear. D. tendinitis. - correct answer - A. nerve root compression.
  4. Jennifer says that she has heard that caffeine can cause osteoporosis and asks you why. How do you respond? A. "Caffeine has no effect on osteoporosis." B. "A high caffeine intake has a diuretic effect that may cause calcium to be excreted more rapidly. - correct answer - B. "A high caffeine
  1. Joan, age 76, has been given a diagnosis of osteoporosis confirmed with a dual- energy x- ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan. The nurse practitioner has educated her about the importance of increasing calcium and vitamin D in her diet and starting a low- impact, weight- bearing exercise program. The nurse practitioner is also going to start the patient on medial management. Joan asks about a drug called a "SERM" that she has heard has been shown in studies to prevent vertebral fractures. Which of the following pharmacological therapies for osteoporosis is classified as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)? A. Alendronate (Fosamax) B. Risedronate (Actonel) C. Salmon calcitonin D. Raloxifene (Evista) - correct answer - D. Raloxifene (Evista)
  2. Beth, age 49, comes in with low back pain. An x- ray of the lumbar/sacral spine is within normal limits. Which of the following diagnoses do you explore further? A. Scoliosis B. Osteoarthritis C. Spinal stenosis D. Herniated nucleus pulposus - correct answer - D. Herniated nucleus pulposus
  3. Sandy, age 49, presents with loss of anal sphincter tone, impaired micturition, incontinence, and progressive loss of strength in the legs. You suspect cauda equina syndrome. What is your next action? A. Order physical therapy B. Order a lumbar/sacral x- ray C. Order extensive lab work D. Refer to a neurosurgeon - correct answer - D. Refer to a neurosurgeon
  1. June, age 67, presents with back pain with no precipitating event. The pain is located over her lower back and muscles without sciatica, and it is aggravated by sitting, standing, and certain movements. It is alleviated with rest. Palpation localizes the pain, and muscle spasms are felt. There was an insidious onset with progressive improvement. What is the most likely differential diagnosis? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Musculoskeletal strain C. Spondylolisthesis D. Herniated disk - correct answer - B. Musculoskeletal strain
  2. Ankylosis is defined as A. muscle shortening. B. joint stiffness. C. malposition of a joint. D. dislocation of a joint. - correct answer - B. joint stiffness.
  3. In assessing an infant for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the practitioner places the infant supine, flexes the knees by holding the thumbs on the inner mid- thighs, with fingers outside on the hips touching the greater trochanters, stabilizes one hip, and abducts and gently pulls anteriorly on the other thigh. If this external rotation feels smooth with no sound present, there is no hip dislocation. This is A. the Allis test. B. Lasègue's sign. C. the McMurray test. D. the Ortolani maneuver. - correct answer - D. the Ortolani maneuver.