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NGR6200 Respiratory Quiz-Questions with
Answers Solved by Expert 2025 Update
Question 1 Which of the following statements are true in reference to signs of consolidation? (Select all that apply)
a. Tactile fremitus is decreased b. Transmitted sound of "E" changes to "Ay" c. Transmitted sound of 1,2,3 is clear d. Auscultation in the bases reveals a predominate expiratory phase - Correct Answerb, c and d
- Transmitted sound of "E" changes to "Ay"
- Transmitted sound of "1,2,3" is clear (not muffled)
- Auscultation in the bases reveals a predominate expiratory phase
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
Serevent (salmeterol) - Correct AnswerLABA
- Long Acting Beta Agonist
- bronchodilator MOA: activated B2 adrenergic receptors, decr effect on histamine supression
Uses: Stable COPD as a combo drug, Long term control Admin: fixed schedule, NEVER prn
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
levalbuterol (Xopenex) - Correct AnswerSABA - (Short Acting Beta2 Agonist)
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
tiotropium (Spiriva) - Correct Answeranticholinergic -(LAMA/muscarinic antagonist), MOA: antagonizes acetylcholine receptors, producing bronchodilation Think: "anTI-OTROPIUM cholingeric"
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
montelukast (Singular) - Correct Answerleukotrine antagonist
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
dextromethophan (Robitussin, Delsyn, DayQuil) - Correct Answerantitussive
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
pseudoephederine (Sudfed) - Correct Answerdecongestant
Match the respiratory drug to the drug class:
loratadine (Claritin) - Correct Answernon sedating antihistamine (2nd Gen)
- H1 antagonist/ H1 Blocker
Question 5:
The CURB 65 is used to:
a. Diagnosis DVT b. Predict prognosis in CAP and help determine outpatient vs inpatient treatment c. Assess risk for SBE d. Assess need for anticoagulation - Correct Answerb.
- Predict prognosis in CAP and help determine outpatient vs inpatient treatment
Question 6:
The definitive test for sleep apnea is:
a. a Holter monitor b. ABI measures c. an overnight polysomnogram d. spirometry - Correct Answerc.
- an overnight polysomnogram, spirometry measures Asthma and COPD
Question 7
The nurse practitioner assesses a PPD on the forearm of a patient being screened for employment. The induration is 7 mm. How should this finding be interpreted?
a. negative, insignificant b. moderately significant, requiring chest radiograph
c. moderately significant, requiring sputum culture d. significant, requiring treatment - Correct Answera.
Question 8
Treatment of latent TB consists of:
a. a four drug cocktail of anti mycobacterial agents b. no treatment is recommended if the CXR is negative c. isoniazid daily for 9 months d. ethambutol for 6 months - Correct Answerc.
- isoniazid daily for 9 months
Question 9:
What is the desired action of ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) when used in treating chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
a. increase mucociliary clearance b. reduce alveolar volume c. bronchodilator effect d. mucolytic agent - Correct Answerc.
bronchodilator effect; it antagonized acetylcholine receptors producting bronchodilation.
NOTE:
Question 12:
Asthma is diagnosed when the change in the FEV1 from the pre-to post-bronchodilation is:
a. 5% greater b. 7% greater c. 10% greater d. 12% greater - Correct Answerd.
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause:
a. Lytic lesion - Correct AnswerDecreased density of the bone
- "spots or holes" seen with malignancies (multiple myeloma)
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause
b. Flattening of the diaphram - Correct AnswerSeen with COPD
- most sensitive sign on Xray indicating "hyperinflation" (COPD)
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause
c. Rib notching - Correct AnswerSeen with connective tissue diseases, hyperparathyroidism
- deformation of the superior or inferior surface of the rib
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause:
d. Steeple sign - Correct AnswerSeen with subglottal narrowing in children with croup
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause:
e. Oreo cookie sign - Correct AnswerSign of pericardial effusion seen on lateral xray
- seen on lateral views
- vertical opaque line separating a vertical translucent line directly behind sternum.
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause:
f. Dextrocardia - Correct AnswerCongenital anomaly
- heart on opposite side of chest
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause:
g. Hilar enlargement - Correct AnswerIndicates lung cancer or infection
Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause
j. Consolidation - Correct AnswerLarge dense homogenous opacification involving and entire lung lobe
- can indicate lobar pneumonia
- small airways filled w/ fluid (pus, edema, blood)
- Seen with pnuemonia, pulm edema or hemmorrhage
Question 13: Match the finding on xray with the definition or cause
k. Silhoutte sign - Correct AnswerLoss of normally visible border of an intrathoracic structure caused by an adjacent pulmonary density
- when mediastinal border is less defined
- "loss of silhouette"
- can be caused by pulm density, pneumonia
Question 14:
The CURB 65 is used to:
a.Diagnosis DVT b. Predict prognosis in CAP and help determine outpatient vs inpatient treatment c. Assess risk for SBE d. Assess need for anticoagulation - Correct Answerb.
Predict prognosis in CAP and help determine outpatient vs inpatient treatment
-CURB (assign 1 pt to each/ max score = 5): C_onfusion U_rea (BUN) > 7mmol/(19mg/dl) R_esp rate > 30 B_/P > 90mmHg
65yrs old
- any CURB score > 2 should be hospitalized
Question 15 The inspiratory phase of respiration is greater than the expiratory phase with which breath sound?
a. bronchial b. bronchovesicular c. vesicular d. tracheal - Correct Answerc.
vesicular Question 16 This drug is a prodrug that is converted in the liver to morphine and is often used as an antitussive. Some individuals are "rapid metabolizers" of this drug and have increased blood levels leading to depressed respirations. The name of the drug is_____________?
a. benzonatate b. dextromethorphan c. guaifenesin d. codeine - Correct Answerd.
The NP wants to prescribe a prednisone burst for a 30 kg child with an asthma exacerbations. The pharmacy has prednisolone 15 mg/5mL and the NP decides to calculate 2 mg/kg/day divided every 12 hours. What amount of mL will she tell the parents to administer for each dose?
a. 2 mL every 12 hours b. 5 mL every 12 hours c. 10 mL every 12 hours d. 15 mL every 12 hours - Correct Answerc. 10 mL every 12 hours
Question 20 A child weighing 44 lb. is in need of an oral prednisone burst for an asthma exacerbation. The prednisolone is supplied at 15 mg/5ml. What would be the daily amount of mL for 1. mg/kg/day dosage?
a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 20 mL d. 30 mL - Correct Answerb. 10 mL
Question 21 A child with CAP weighing 27 kg would need the following mL every 12 hours of amoxicillin/clavulanate (use Augmentin ES-600/42.9/5mL and dose it at 90 mg/kg/day PO divided q 12 hours)
a. 5 mL b. 7 mL c. 10 mL d. 15 mL - Correct Answerc. 10 mL
- A chronic cough lasts longer than:
a. 3 weeks b. 1 month c. 6 months d. 1 year - Correct Answera. 3 weeks
Source: Dunphy
- You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient's ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
a. Baker phenomenon b. Arnold reflex c. Cough reflex d. Tragus reflex - Correct Answerb. Arnold reflex
Arnold Reflex: nerve ear-cough reflex is recognized to occur uncommonly in patients with chronic cough. In these patients, mechanical stimulation of the external auditory meatus can activate the auricular branch of the vagus nerve (Arnold's nerve) and evoke reflex cough.
Source: Dunphy
____ 3. Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:
a. Asthma b. Sinusitis c. Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis d. Influenza - Correct Answerc. Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d. Influenza - Correct Answerc. Chronic bronchitis
Source: Dunphy
___ 7. You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. **Her score is 3. What should you do?
a. Consider home treatment. b. Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization. c. Closely supervise her outpatient treatment. d. Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit. - Correct Answerd. Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
*CURB score > 2 req hospitalization
Source: Dunphy
____ 8. Why do you suspect that your patient may have a decreased response to the tuberculin skin test (TBT)?
a. She is on a high-protein diet. b. She is an adolescent. c. She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy. d. She just got over a cold. - Correct Answerc. She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
Source: Dunphy
____ 9. Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen. Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?
a. Pyridoxine b. Thiamine c. Probiotic d. Phytonadione - Correct Answera. Pyridoxine (Vit B6)
- helps w/ CHO, Fat and protein metab, metab by liver P
- phytonadione is Vit K, which is used for cofactor production in clotting
Source: Dunphy
____ 10. Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated. b. The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise. c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body. d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading. - Correct Answerc. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
Source: Dunphy
-pts <18 yo -caution if renal impairment -caution if psychiatric disorder or hx -caution if seizure hx -caution if seizure risk -caution if alcohol use -caution if cardiovascular dz Teaching (ePoc) You may choose from 3 ways to use varenicline. Ask your doctor which method is best for you:
Set a date to quit smoking and start taking varenicline 1 week before that date. This will allow the drug to build up in your body. Make sure to quit smoking on your planned quit date. Take varenicline for a total of 12 weeks.
Start taking varenicline before you set a planned quit date. Once you start taking the medicine, choose a quit date that is between 8 and 35 days after you start treatment. Take varenicline for a total of 12 weeks.Source: Dunphy
____ 13. Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?
a. The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa. b. Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum. c. Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake. d. Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy. - Correct Answera. The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
Source: Dunphy
____ 14. Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?
a. Fever b. Headache c. Exudative pharyngitis d. Rhinorrhea - Correct Answerd. Rhinorrhea
Source: Dunphy
____ 15. What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A β-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin b. Quinolone c. Cephalosporin d. Macrolide - Correct Answera. Penicillin
Source: Dunphy
____ 16. Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?
a. Mild intermittent b. Mild persistent c. Moderate persistent d. Severe persistent - Correct Answerc. Moderate persistent
