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NGR 6172 TEST 1 Questions & Answers Fall 2024, Exams of Nursing

NGR 6172 TEST 1 Questions & Answers Fall 2024

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 09/01/2024

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NGR 6172 TEST 1 Practice Questions
1. Some drugs can stimulate metabolizing enzymes and speed up their metabolism which
can lower the actual effect of drugs. Which of the following drugs are known as inducing
agents (select all that apply)
a) Atorvastatin
b) Phenytoin
c) Tobacco
d) St. Johns wort
2. QT prolongation can occur with some drugs and combinations of drugs. Which of the
following increase the risk of QT prolongation and potential dysrhythmias (select all that
apply)
a) Male gender
b) Female gender
c) Hypokalemia
d) Low magnesium
3. Sudden withdrawal of a medication that has been used chronically can create a
hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following are sensitivity responses that can occur
when the medication is stopped (select all that apply)
a) Abrupt cessation of metoprolol can lead to HTN
b) Abrupt cessation of clonidine can lead to tachycardia
c) Abrupt cessation of clonidine can lead to hypertension
d) Abrupt cessation of metoprolol can lead to tachycardia
4. Match the pharmacodynamic term with the definition:
a) ED50 - The dose that is required to produce a defined therapeutic response in
50% of the population
b) Receptor downregulation - Desensitizing occurs when the receptors of a cell are
continually exposed to an agonist (molecules that activate receptors or drugs that
mimic the body’s response) the cell becomes less responsive
c) Partial agonist or agonist-antagonist - An agonist that has less effect than a full
agonist.
d) Therapeutic index - Ratio of a drug’s LD50 (which is average lethal dose in 50%
on animals tested) to its ED50 (therapeutic dose in 50% of a population)
e) Idiosyncratic response - An uncommon drug response resulting from a genetic
predisposition
f) Bioavailability - The ability of a drug to reach the systemic circulation from its
site of administration
g) Tachyphylaxis - A form of tolerance that can be defined as a reduction in drug
responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short time
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NGR 6172 TEST 1 Practice Questions

  1. Some drugs can stimulate metabolizing enzymes and speed up their metabolism which can lower the actual effect of drugs. Which of the following drugs are known as inducing agents (select all that apply) a) Atorvastatin b) Phenytoin c) Tobacco d) St. Johns wort
  2. QT prolongation can occur with some drugs and combinations of drugs. Which of the following increase the risk of QT prolongation and potential dysrhythmias (select all that apply) a) Male gender b) Female gender c) Hypokalemia d) Low magnesium
  3. Sudden withdrawal of a medication that has been used chronically can create a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of the following are sensitivity responses that can occur when the medication is stopped (select all that apply) a) Abrupt cessation of metoprolol can lead to HTN b) Abrupt cessation of clonidine can lead to tachycardia c) Abrupt cessation of clonidine can lead to hypertension d) Abrupt cessation of metoprolol can lead to tachycardia
  4. Match the pharmacodynamic term with the definition: a) ED50 - The dose that is required to produce a defined therapeutic response in 50% of the population b) Receptor downregulation - Desensitizing occurs when the receptors of a cell are continually exposed to an agonist (molecules that activate receptors or drugs that mimic the body’s response) the cell becomes less responsive c) Partial agonist or agonist-antagonist - An agonist that has less effect than a full agonist. d) Therapeutic index - Ratio of a drug’s LD50 (which is average lethal dose in 50% on animals tested) to its ED50 (therapeutic dose in 50% of a population) e) Idiosyncratic response - An uncommon drug response resulting from a genetic predisposition f) Bioavailability - The ability of a drug to reach the systemic circulation from its site of administration g) Tachyphylaxis - A form of tolerance that can be defined as a reduction in drug responsiveness brought on by repeated dosing over a short time
  1. Which of the following is true about NPs in Florida: a) NPs in Florida may apply for independent practice from physicians b) NPs in Florida can write a prescription for alprazolam c) Psych NPs in Florida can write prescriptions for Adderall d) NPs in Florida have physician oversite unless they are granted independent practice
  2. Which of the following drug(s) have been identified as having the most adverse effects? (Choose all that apply) Notice that the selection boxes come up as squares when there are multiple answers. Partial credit is given and a deduction in given for answers that are chosen that are incorrect a) Insulin b) Heparin c) Digoxin d) Glipizide e) Lisinopril
  3. Choose the true statement regarding trade name medications. a) Trade name are consistent in other countries b) Manufacturers of branded products are not allowed to reformulate their medications c) "Double medication" with brand products can be devastating d) Trade names are difficult to pronounce and market to the public
  4. The FDA required the makers of Chantix to add warnings of mood changes. These adverse effects became known after the drug was released for general use. Which phase of clinical testing did this occur? a) Preclinical testing b) Phase 1 c) Phase II d) Phase IV Post marketing Surveillance
  1. When two drugs are given at the same time that both utilize the same metabolizing enzymes, the following occurs (select all that apply) a) One drug make reach higher than expected levels if it is not metabolized b) If drugs such as statins are not metabolized, an increase in drug level may led to muscle injury c) One of the drugs that is not metabolized will not reach a therapeutic level d) The metabolizing of the drug may be increased resulting in decreased levels of the drug
  2. A patient with diminished kidney function is prescribed a drug that rises to levels higher than desired. This is an example of t! a) Pharmacokinetics b) Pharmacodynamics c) Pharmacoeconomics d) Pharmacogenomics
  3. Select the true statement regarding absorption of drugs. a) Liquid preparations are absorbed more rapidly than tablets b) The stomach has an extremely large surface area c) Most of the drugs are absorbed in the stomach d) Lipid soluble drugs are not able to penetrate cell membranes
  4. Drugs need to exit the vascular system to reach their target and be metabolized and excreted. Choose the correct statements regarding drug movement. (Choose all that apply) a) Lipid soluble drugs are able to cross the blood brain barrier b) Ionized, highly polar, or protein bound drugs cross the placental barrier. c) Warfarin (an anticoagulant) is a drug that is highly bound to protein (99%). d) Drugs compete for protein binding sites. If one drug displaces another from albumin, the free concentration of the displaced drug will rise.
  1. A patient is taking an antiepileptic drug such as phenytoin. Some seizure medications stimulate the liver to make more drug- metabolizing enzymes that speeds up the breakdown of the drug. Chose the correct statements in reference to this consideration in drug metabolism. (Choose all that apply) a) This is an example of induction of drug metabolizing enzymes. b) This is an example of inhibition of drug metabolizing enzymes. orrect! c) A drug given with an inducing agent may need to have an increased dosage. d) A drug given with an inducing agent may reach toxic levels because it is not metabolized.
  2. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have a significant "first-pass" effect: a) Sublinqual nitroglycerin b) Transdermal estrogen patch c) An oral agent d) A drug given parenterally
  3. Which of the following drugs has the longest half life (T 1/2 )? a) Keflex 500 mg every 6 hours b) Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours c) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg every 12 hours d) Levofloxacin 750 mg daily
  4. A patient stops taking their long acting once a day beta blocker (Toprol) used for blood pressure reduction. The nurse knows that when this drug is abruptly discontinued, the patient may experience tachycardia. When would the symtoms appear? a) Immediatley b) in 3 hours c) in 24 hours d) in 4-5 days (or half-lives) when the drug comes down from plateau

 warfarin  atrovastatin  lisinopril  methotrexate CategoryDrugs that are considered safe in pregnancy  heparin  levothyroxine  insulin  labetolol  albuterol  folic acid

24. Which of the following antibiotics are safe to give during

pregnancy?

a) amoxicillin

b) doxycycline

c) ciprofloxacin

d) levofloxacin

25. Drug suspensions in children are calculated using

mg/kg/day, however, as children reach near adult weight, using

mg/kg/day would calculate to a dosage higher than that of an

adult dose. Once a child reaches __________lbs, a dosage no

greater than an adult dosage should be given.

a) 40-50 lbs

b) 50-60 lbs

c) 60-80 lbs

d) 88-110 lbs

26. Which of the following drugs are not recommended in

children? (Select all that apply)

a) doxycycline (age < 8)

b) fluroquinolone antibiotics

c) amoxicillin

d) codeine

e) aspirin

27. Dr. Beers developed a list of medications that are

inappropriate in older adults. Drugs should be avoided that

have a narrow therapeutic range, a long half life, and are

renally excreted. Which of the following drugs are on the Beer's

list? (Select all that apply)

a) amiodarone

b) sedating antihistamines

c) sulfonylureas

d) NSAIDs

e) SSRIs with short half life

  1. Which of the following are true about placental drug transfer: (Choose all that apply) a) Lipid soluble drugs cross the placenta easily b) The placenta and mammary tissue serve as a protective shield c) Drugs with large molecular weights such as heparin and insulin do not pass into the fetal circulation d) Factors that determine drug passage across membranes of the placenta are the same factors that determine drug passage across other membranes
  2. An expectant mother exposes her fetus to an illicit drug during the fetal period (2nd or 3rd trimester). The exposure is most likely to produce a) Truncated limbs b) Cardiac defects c) Neural tube defects d) Learning deficits and behavioral abnormalities
  3. Which of the following has a remote risk of harming the fetus if given to a pregnant woman (Formerly called FDA Category A-this classification is no longer used)? a) Vitamin A 8,000 units b) Isotretinoin c) Warfarin d) Levothyroxine
  1. Which of the following statements are true regarding kidney function in the older adult? (Choose all that apply) a) Serum creatinine is the best measure of renal function b) Women have reduced creatinine levels c) Older adults have less creatinine because they have less muscle d) African Americans have lower creatinine levels
  2. Many children approach adult weight at a younger age. Prescribers know that when a child reaches_______in weight, an adult dose is given because if mg/kg/day dosing is calculated, it will be higher than an adult dose (select all that apply) a) 40-50 lbs b) 40-50 kg c) 88-110 lbs d) 120 lbs
  3. Which of the following drugs are considered inappropriate for older adults (select all that apply) a) Hydroxazine b) quetiapine c) alprazolam d) Tolterodine e) Clonidine f) lisinopril

39. Match the drug class to the drug prototype

 Alpha 2 agonist- clonidine

 Beta 2 agonist- albuterol

 Anticholinergic- ipratropium (Atrovent)

 Beta adrenergic antagonist- metoprolol

 Alpha 1 antagonist- prazosin

  1. Anticholinergic Drugs Category Anticholinergic drugs  atropine  ipratropium (Atrovent)  tolterodine (Detrol LA) Uncategorized answers  metoprolol  clonidine
  2. Anticholinergic side effects Category Anticholinergic side effects  sedation  anhidrosis  blurry vision  tachycardia  constipation  urinary retention  dry mouth Uncategorized answers  brochoconstriction  bradycardia  sweating
  3. Drug classes with anticholinergic properties Category Drug classes with anticholinergic properties  Antipsychotics  First generation antihistamine  SSRI-paroxetine (Paxil)  Tricyclic antidepressants Uncategorized answers  Beta adrenergic antagonists  Alpha 2 agonists  Alpha 1 antagonists
  4. Parasympathetic and Sympathetic Receptor Activation
  1. Select the therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs. (choose all that apply) a) Hypertension b) Motion sickness c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d) Overactive bladder
  2. Anticholinergic side effects include all of the following: (choose all that apply) a) Bradycardia b) Blurry vision c) Urinary retention d) Dry mouth
  3. Select the drugs that are classified as anticholinergics: (choose all that apply) a) Ipatropium bromide (Atrovent) b) Tolterodine (Detrol) c) Albuterol d) Drugs used to treat overactive bladder
  4. Atropine overdose may cause which of the following? a) Gastrointestinal cramping b) Increased heart rate c) Increased gastric secretions d) Urinary frequency
  5. A 70 year old male with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) has a worsening of symptoms of urinary retention after taking an over the counter (OTC) remedy for an upper respiratory syndrome. The medication was most likely: a) Antiinflammatory b) Antihistamine

c) Antitussive d) Mucolytic

  1. Which of the following drug classes have anticholinergic properties (choose all that apply)? a) Tricyclic antidepressants b) Antihistamines c) Antipsychotics d) Beta blockers
  2. Cholinesterase inhibitors decrease the levels of acetylcholine and are used to treat Parkinson's disease. a) True b) False
  3. Which patient should not receive any atropine like drugs: a) A 50-year old with parkinsonism b) A 35-year old with peptic ulcer c) A 60-year old with glaucoma d) A 55-year old with cirrhosis
  4. Which drug treats myasthenia gravis by increasing muscle strength? a) Bethanechol (Urecholine) b) Atropine c) Neostigmine (Prostigmin) d) Donepezil (Aricept)
  5. Match the term in column 1 with the definition in column 2. Correct! Acetylcholine

Module 2 practice questions

  1. Categorize drugs according to drug class Category Alpha 1 agonists  phenylephrine  epinephrine  pseudoephedrine Category Alpha 2 agonists (indirect acting antiadrenergic)  clonidine  guanfacine  methyldopa Uncategorized answers  metoprolol  doxazosin  atropine
  2. Select the possible side effects of alpha 2 agonists such as clonidine Category Alpha 2 agonist side effects  decreased heart rate  rebound hypertension with abrupt withdrawal  fetal toxicity  decrease in blood pressure  sedation Uncategorized answers  tachycardia  insomnia
  3. Match the adrenergic drugs with the indications  Epinephrine - anaphylaxis and hemostasis  Phenylephrine- nasal congestion and elevation of blood pressure  Albuterol- asthma or COPD  Dopamine- shock, renal failure
  1. Which of the following statements are true in regards to using epinephrine auto-injectors (select all that apply) a) Two pack of the Epi-Pen is prescribed to patients with severe allergies b) The effect wears off in about 20 minutes c) Hospitalization is recommended because the allergic reaction may be prolonged and biphasic d) Patients with hypertension should never be given epinephrine e) Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists may be unable to respond to epinephrine
  2. Match the receptor with the response when activated (use the receptor card and note where the receptors are located) Category Alpha 1 activation  Contraction of the bladder and prostatic capsule  Pupil dilation (mydriasis)  Constriction of the arterioles and veins Category Beta 1 and beta 2 activation  Increased heart rate  Uterine relaxation  Dilation of bronchi Uncategorized answers  Hypoglycemia  Bronchoconstriction  Bradycardia
  3. Alpha adrenergic antagonist are mostly used for benign prostatic hypertrophy. Side effects include: (select all that apply) a) First dose hypotension b) Bradycardia c) Erectile dysfunction d) Bronchoconstriction
  4. Which of the following are indications for beta adrenergic antagonists (select all that apply) a) migraine prophylaxis b) hypothyroidism c) post myocardial infarction d) asthma e) hyperthyroidism f) depression

and are contraindicated in patients diagnosed with which disease process or symptom? a) Angina b) Hypertension c) Coronary artery disease d) All of the above

  1. Which drug blocks the alpha receptors in the prostatic capsule and can alleviate symptoms in men with benign prostate hypertrophy (BPH)? a) Clonidine b) Captopril c) Prazosin d) Propranolol
  2. Which of the following statements are true regarding alpha adrenergic antagonists (alpha blockers)? (Choose all that apply): a) First dose hypotension can occur b) Abrupt withdrawal can cause rebound cardiac excitement c) Concurrent use with erectile dysfunction drugs can cause severe hypotension d) Floppy iris syndrome can occur making ocular surgery a challenge
  1. Which drug is used to minimize tissue injury resulting from extravasation of dopamine infusion? a) Phenylephrine b) Phentolamine c) Epinephrine d) Isoproterenol
  2. Nancy has a history of severe allergies to shellfish and is always certain to have her EpiPen with her. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension. Which medication choice would not be selected because it would block the beta receptors and render the epinephrine ineffective in the event of an accidental exposure to shellfish? a) Metoprolol b) Lisinopril c) Hydrochorothiazide d) hydralazine
  3. The server at J. Alexander's restaurant assured Nancy that the french fries were not cooked in the same oil as the seafood. In spite of the warnings, Nancy feels a ball in her throat after ingesting the french fries and self administers the epinephrine. Immediate medical is required following epinephrine injection because: a) The effects of epinephrine begin to fade in 60-90 minutes b) Anaphylactic reactions are short in duration and do not reoccur c) Hospitalization (up to 24 hours) is recommended d) Additional treatment such as prednisone may be given to manage delayed or persistent symptoms