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NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM ||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS, Exams of Pharmacology

Capella University Pharmacology

NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM ||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS/A+GRADE

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

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NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT

DETAILED ANSWERS/A+GRADE

1. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed

ferrous sulfate?

a. Iron compounds are not taken orally

b. Iron does not absorb

c. Iron should only be taken at night

d. Antacids should not be taken with iron

2. Which is the most common type of anemia?

a. Iron deficiency

b. Sickle cell anemia

c. Folic acid deficiency

d. B12 deficiency

3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with

trimethoprim?

a. Fluroquinolones

b. Cephalosporins

c. Aminoglycosides

d. Sulfonamides

4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?

a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects

b. Beta-1 selective

c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking

d. Nonselective alpha-blockers

5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease?

a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin)

b. Hormonal therapy

c. Corticosteroids

d. Opioids

6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?

a. Macrolides b.

Sulfonamides

c. Tetracyclines

d. Cephalosporins

e. Fluroquinolones

7. Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors?

a. Hyperthyroidism

b. Pulmonary hypertension

c. Cushing’s syndrome

d. Angina

e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)

8. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management?

a. Clonidine primary

b. Beta blockers primary

c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary

d. ACE-I primary

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NURS 110 Midterm Exam Latest 2024/2025 WCU question and answer graded A+

Pharmacology Review: Cardiovascular Medications

ATI RN Concept-Based Assessment Level 3 2025 PRE TEST 350 GRADED A+ (Complied From Real)

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Download NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM ||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

|| 2025 - 2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT

DETAILED ANSWERS/A+GRADE

Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed ferrous sulfate? a. Iron compounds are not taken orally b. Iron does not absorb c. Iron should only be taken at night d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
Which is the most common type of anemia? a. Iron deficiency b. Sickle cell anemia c. Folic acid deficiency d. B12 deficiency
Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with trimethoprim? a. Fluroquinolones b. Cephalosporins c. Aminoglycosides d. Sulfonamides
Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol? a. Alpha- 1 - antagonist effects b. Beta- 1 selective c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease? a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin) b. Hormonal therapy c. Corticosteroids d. Opioids
Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure? a. Macrolides b. Sulfonamides c. Tetracyclines d. Cephalosporins e. Fluroquinolones
Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Angina e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)
Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management? a. Clonidine primary b. Beta blockers primary c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary d. ACE-I primary

e. ARB primary

Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic? a. Penicillin b. Azithromycin c. Amikacin d. Ciprofloxacin
Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media? a. Immunoglobulins b. Aspirin c. Corticosteroid s d. Amoxicillin
Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in the development of pseudomembranous colitis? a. Tetracycline b. Vancomycin c. Clindamycin d. Amoxicillin
Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease? a. Avoid diuretics b. Avoid antibiotics c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors d. Avoid NSAIDs
Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board of Pharmacy, depending on the state. a. True b. False
Which of the following is most true of nurse practitioner prescribers? a. Prescriptive authority is under the full control of the Board of Nursing in all states b. All states allow nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances c. Al states allow some level of prescription writing by nurse practitioners d. None of the choices are correct
Which of the following is a non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice? a. Malathoin (Ovide) b. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia) c. Permethrin 1% (Nix) d. Lindane shampoo
Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin? a. Onychomycosis b. Vaginal candidiasis c. Intestinal candidiasis d. Oral candidiasis
All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except? a. Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years of age

Amoxicillin is prescribed for a 12-month-old child who developed a second middle ear infection since age 8 months. Three days later, the parent calls to report that the child continues to have a temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of the pain. What action will the provider take to provide effective care to this child? a. Advise continuing the amoxicillin as ordered and provide a schedule of PRN dosing of ibuprofen for pain b. Discuss with the parent the child’s need for probably surgery for tympanostomy tubes placement to reduce infections c. Prescribe a medication that promotes sleep d. Discuss prescribing amoxicillin/clavulanate with the child’s parents
The patient is diagnosed with otitis media with perforated eardrum. You want to prescribe an otic preparation. Which of the following is not appropriate? a. Acetic acid otic b. Ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone c. Ciprofloxacin/hydrocortisone otic d. Olfloxacin otic
During a recent office visit, your patient is found to have atrial fibrillation. He is being treated for Graves’ disease. Which new medication will you add to his current treatment regimen? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Warfarin (Coumadin) d. Cholestyramine (Prevalite)
A patient who has been taking warfarin is admitted with coffee-ground emesis. How will you manage this patient? a. Administer vitamin K b. Administer vitamin E c. Administer calcium gluconate d. Administer protamine sulfate
A bleeding patient receiving warfarin has an INR of 6. What is the best course of action? a. Administer protamine sulfate b. Wait for INR to decrease c. Administer phytonadione d. Stop the IV drip
Patches are sometimes prescribed to patients. Understanding how often patches are applied, when to remove them, correct location of patch placement, frequency of dosing, and correct way to dispose are important counseling points when discussing with your patients. Match the following medication with the correct frequency of dosing: a. Rivastigmine (Exelon) once weekly b. Duragesic once daily c. Transderm Scop 48 hours d. Catapres-TTS once weekly
Which is the best description of the action of Clonidine? a. It selectively activates alpha- 2 receptors in the central nervous system b. It causes peripheral activation of alpha- 1 and alpha- 2 receptors

c. It depletes sympathetic neurons from norepinephrine d. It directly blocks alpha and beta receptors in the periphery

A patient you are treating for hypertension comes to your clinic complaining of red, painful swelling of his great left toe. Gout is diagnosed and you are treating this condition. What will you do next for this patient? a. Encourage him to lose weight b. Assess for possible alcohol abuse c. Order HbA1c d. Change his thiazide antihypertensive medication
Which of the following is no one of the principal indications for vasodilators? a. Heart failure b. Essential hypertension c. Hypertensive crisis d. Peripheral edema
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plats an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure? a. Angiotensin II b. Angiotensin III c. Renin d. Angiotensin I
The provider is discussing the management of prescribed, controlled substances with a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the information provided? a. To reduce the probability of abuse of a drug that is Schedule II, the prescriber should call the prescription to the pharmacy b. Prescriptions for drugs in Schedule III and IV may be written to include up to 5 refills c. Schedule I drugs may only be given to hospitalized patients d. If there is a difference between state and federal laws governing a scheduled drug, the federal law takes precedence
In a case of an opioid overdose, naloxone can be given in repeated doses because of which property of naloxone? a. May have a shorter half-life than the opioid antagonist b. Is needed to stimulate the respiratory center c. Is effective only at high cumulative doses d. Is safe only in extremely small doses
If interventions to resolve the cause of pain (e.g. rest, ice, compression, and elevation) are insufficient, pain medications are given based on the severity of pain. Drugs are given in which order of use? a. Opiates, non-opioids, increased dose of non-opiate b. NSAIDs, opiates, corticosteroids c. Low-dose opiates, salicylates, increased dose of opiates d. Non-opiates, increased dose of non-opiates, opioids
Which of the following opioids is so lipophilic that it is marketed in a skin patch used to treat chronic pain? a. Methadone

c. Cefaclor d. Cefotaxime

Which assessment finding in a patient taking hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG- CoA) reductase inhibitor will the NP act on immediately? a. Elevated liver function tests b. Elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol c. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol d. Decreased hemoglobin
Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is: a. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin 4 weeks after treatment is started b. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment c. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks d. Annual complete blood count
A patient is being assessed for muscle weakness, cramping, and leg discomfort. This patient has been taking hydrochlorothiazide. What else would you do for this patient? a. Give a lower dose of the medication b. Administer calcium supplements c. Assess the serum potassium level d. Reduce salt in the patient’s diet
When prescribing acyclovir, patients should be educated regarding the: a. Risk for life-threatening rash such as stevens Johnson b. Eccentric dosing schedule c. Need to drink lots of fluid during treatment d. High risk of developing diarrhea
Which is true about tetanus toxoid? a. Tetanus toxoid is a bacterial toxin that has been changed to a nontoxic form b. Tetanus toxoid provides immunity from Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. The recommended dose of tetanus toxoid for adults is 1 mL given intramuscularly d. DTaP and DT are sage to give to all adults
A patient is diagnosed with Bell’s palsy and prescribed high-dose steroids for 10 days, with minimal improvement. During a follow-up visit, you suspect the patient has HSV-1. Which medication will you prescribe? a. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim DS) b. Penicillin c. Ciprofloxaci n d. Acyclovir
Instructions for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment include: a. None of the answers are correct b. If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection c. Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication past the borders of the infection d. Wash hands before and after topical antimicrobials
Which drug would most likely be used to treat oral candidiasis? a. Terconazole

b. Nystatin c. Tioconazole d. Amphotericin B

Your 23 - year-old female patient is pregnant and has gonorrhea. The medical history includes anaphylaxis following exposure to amoxicillin. The most appropriate drug to use is: a. Ceftriaxone b. Cefixime c. Ciprofloxaci n d. Azithromycin e. Doxycycline
A 19 - year-old female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a common treatment prescribed? a. Metronidazole b. Ciprofloxaci n c. Azithromyci n d. Amoxicillin
The major reason for not crushing a sustained-release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: a. Malabsorption b. Disintegration c. Toxicity d. Deterioration
Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Drug X is considered to be a(n): a. Competitive antagonist b. Agonist c. Irreversible antagonist d. Partial agonist
Blood concentrations of drugs are variable and are influenced by the: a. Drug classification b. EC c. Therapeutic index d. Drug metabolism
The therapeutic index is a measure of drug: a. Effectiveness b. Bioavailability status c. Safety profile d. Absorption rate
Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? a. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have a greater bioavailability than drugs given once a day b. All brands of drugs have the same bioavailability c. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability

Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include: a. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management b. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing c. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them d. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
Prescriptive authority regulations are determined by? a. None of these choices b. Controlled by the federal government c. NPs have full prescriptive authority in all states d. State law under the jurisdiction of a health professional board
Therapeutic effects of verapamil (Calan SR) are: a. Increased BP b. Decreased ventricular premature beats c. Increased HR d. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
You are treating a patient who has diabetes and hypertension. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to treat this patient’s hypertension? a. Hydrochlorothiazide b. Methyldopa c. Propranolol d. Enalapril
Which of the following calcium-channel blocker that is used for atrial tachycardia that slows conduction at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes? a. Amlodipine b. Clevidipine c. Felodipine d. Diltiazem e. Nifedipine
The drug classification that may reduce insulin sensitivity when treating type 2 diabetic patient for HTN are: a. Alpha blockers and ACE inhibitors b. Diuretics and beta blockers c. Calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors d. Diuretics and calcium channel blockers
Which effect is caused by both atenolol and diltiazem? a. Increased cGMP levels b. Decreased heart rate c. Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle d. Decreased cAMP levels
A patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Comorbidities include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and advanced multiple sclerosis. Which type of education regarding medication administration would you provide? a. The oral administration of a prescription for hydrocortisone/neomycin/polymyxin B combination solution

b. The administration of topical medications for a prescription of alcohol plus acetic acid solution c. The oral administration of a prescription for fluoroquinolone d. The administration of topical combination medications for a prescription of flora quinolone/glucocorticoid combination solution

A 2 year old child presents to the clinic with otalgia and fever. The left tympanic membrane (TM) is erythematous and bulging.; the right (TM) is perforated and draining. The child’s parents states. “This is the fifth ear infection this ear. What can we do?”. What action will the provider take to address the child’s ear problems? a. Discuss beginning prophylactic antibiotic therapy with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole b. Prescribe both ceftriaxone (Rocephin) IM with benzocaine ear drops for pain c. Prescribe amoxicillin/clavulanate and refer the child to an otolaryngologist d. Prescribe both high-dose amoxicillin and the influenza vaccine
Amoxicillin is prescribed for a 12-month-old child who developed a second middle ear infection since age 8 months. Three days later, the parent calls to report that the child continues to have a temperature of 39.5° C and is unable to sleep well because of the pain. What action will the provider take to provide effective care to this child? a. Advise continuing the amoxicillin as ordered and provide a schedule of PRN dosing of ibuprofen for pain b. Discuss with the parent the child’s need for probably surgery for tympanostomy tubes placement to reduce infections c. Prescribe a medication that promotes sleep d. Discuss prescribing amoxicillin/clavulanate with the child’s parents
When a patient takes a hepatic enzyme inducer, the dose of warfarin is usually modified in which way? a. It is increased b. It is very unpredictable c. It is decreased d. No change in dosage
When two drugs interact what are the possible outcomes? a. All the answers are correct b. The combination of drugs may produce a new response not seen with either drug alone c. One drug may reduce the effects of the other d. One drug may intensify the effects of the other
A generic medication is considered equal, or bioequivalent to its parent brand-name medication, and must undergo stringent safety and equivalency testing and comply with specific criteria established by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). a. True b. False
Which enzyme is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the liver? a. Ptyalin b. CYP450 enzymes c. Gastric lipase d. Pancreatic lipase

A patient with heart failure who takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a thiazide diuretic, and a beta blocker for several months comes to the clinic for evaluation. As part of the ongoing assessment of this patient, the provider will focus on which evaluation? a. Maximal exercise capacity b. Serum electrolyte levels c. Ejection fraction d. Complete blood count
Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is: a. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin 4 weeks after treatment is started b. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment c. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks d. Annual complete blood count
An infant is prescribed a medication that has a narrow therapeutic range and is excreted by the kidneys. The provider will monitor closely for which effect? a. Tachyphylaxis b. Evidence of drug toxicity c. Decreased drug effectiveness d. Unusual CNS effects
Which statement by a patient about the use of aspirin during pregnancy indicates a need for further learning? a. Aspirin is most harmful when used late in pregnancy b. Aspirin can cause antepartum hemorrhage c. Aspirin can affect hemostasis in the newborn d. Aspirin can be used to relieve pain during pregnancy
The brain of the teate may accumulate toxic levels of drugs due to: a. Subcutaneous perfusion is nonfunctional b. The blood-brain barrier is not fully developed c. The P-glycoprotein transporter is overdeveloped d. CYP450 enzymes are nonfunctional e. Gastric motility and peristalsis are delayed
All of the following statements about Beer’s List are true except: a. It is derived from the expert opinion of one geriatrician and is not evidence-based b. These criteria are directed as the general population of patients over 65 years of age and do not take disease states into consideration c. These criteria have been adopted by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for regulation of long-term care facilities d. It is a list of medications or medication classes that should generally be avoided in persons 65 years or older because they are either ineffective or they post unnecessary high risk for older person and a safer alternative is available
An older adult patient with a history of forgetfulness will need to take multiple drugs after discharge from the hospital. What provider action will most successfully promote medication adherence in a forgetful patient? a. Ask the patient to share the medication teaching with a neighbor or friend soon after discharge

b. Make sure the patient understands the actions and side effects of each drug c. Schedule medication to be taken at the same times as much as possible d. Give the patient detailed written information about each drug

A patient on heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 98 seconds. How will you interpret this finding? a. The levels cannot be interpreted without knowing the prothrombin time and the international normalized ratio (INR) b. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too high c. The level is within the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation d. The level is outside the expected target therapeutic level of anticoagulation; it is too low
An orally administered drug that directly inhibits thrombin: a. Eptifibatide b. Enoxaparin c. Rivaroxaban d. Prasugrel e. Dabigatran
A patient who has been prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), the patient is also taking warfarin. How does taking these drugs in combination affect their distribution to the tissues? Select all that apply. a. There is a decrease in protein binding of the drugs b. There is a decrease in gastric emptying time c. There is a change of the drugs to passive metabolites
Beta lactamase inhibitors are often indicated in which of the following? a. Delayed absorption of oral drugs b. Often combined with penicillin antibiotics c. First dose effects d. May decrease absorption of medications
Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in peptic ulcer disease? a. Avoid diuretics b. Avoid antibiotics c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors d. Avoid NSAIDs
Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol? a. Alpha- 1 - antagonist effects b. Beta- 1 selective c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
Fluroquinolone antibiotics are most likely indicated in which of the following conditions? a. Asthma b. GERD c. Genital infections d. Follicular conjunctivitis d. There is an increase in the volume of distribution e. There is an increase in free drug levels in the plasma

e. Doxycycline

A female patient who is beign treated for chronic hepatitis B develops nephrotoxicity while on treatment. Which is the most likely medication she is taking for s treatment? a. Entecavir b. Adefovir c. Lamivudine d. Telbivudine
You administer morphine to treat the pain of a patient with cancer. What process occurs for a therapeutic effect? a. Mu receptors are blocked b. Kappa receptors are stimulated c. Mu and kappa receptors are blocked d. Mu and kappa receptors are stimulated
Which agent is often found as an adulterant in heroin and has led to an increase in overdose deaths? a. Cathinones b. Fentanyl c. Spice d. Marijuana
Codeine has a greater oral bioavailability compared with morphine because of which reason? a. Morphine directly passes into systemic circulation b. Morphine is conjugated more quickly c. Codeine undergoes less first-pass metabolism d. Codeine is metabolized more by hepatic enzymes
A patient who has a long-term addiction to opioids is believed to have taken an overdose of barbiturates. The provider will anticipate which likely outcome? a. Pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, and possibly coma b. Minimal respiratory depression because the patient has developed tolerance to opioids c. Paradoxical excitation resulting from drug-drug interaction d. Severe abstinence syndrome when the effects of the barbiturates are recersed
When choosing a topical corticosteroid cream to treat diaper dermatitis, the ideal medication would be: a. A high-potency corticosteroid cream (Diprolene AF) b. A combination of corticosteroid and an antifungal (Lotrisone) c. Intermediate potency corticosteroid ointment (Kenalog) d. A low-potency corticosteroid cream applied sparingly (Hydrocortisone 1%)
Mupirocin ointment is used topically to treat: a. All types of eye infections b. Hemorrhoids c. Conjunctiviti s d. Impetigo
What is the major concern for a prolonged use of prednisone? a. Hypertension b. Precipitation of a stroke

c. Hepatic necrosis d. Renal insufficiency e. Osteoporosis

All of the antibiotic options listed are used to treat MRSA infections except: a. Vancomycin b. Clindamycin c. Daptomycin d. Polymyxins e. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Which of the following are the mechanisms of resistance that can occur with antimicrobial therapy? a. Enzymatic inactivation of the drugs b. All of the answers are correct c. Drug efflux d. Altered drug targets
Which of the following antibiotics is not considered bactericidal? a. Minocycline b. Penicillin c. Cephalexin d. Vancomycin
Which antibiotic is in the macrolide class? a. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) b. Trimethoprim c. Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) d. Minocycline (Minocin)
People at higher risk for methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA) include: a. All the answers are correct b. Children c. Military recruits d. Athletes e. Prison inmates
Which of the following is recommended treatment for erythema migrans or early Lyme disease? a. Erythromycin 333mg po for 10 days b. Dicloxacillin 500mg po for 10 days c. Doxycycline 100mg po for 21 days d. Ciprofloxacin 250mg po for 14 days
Which is considered the most widely used group of antibiotics because of their bactericidal nature, resistance to beta-lactamases, and activity against a broad spectrum of pathogens? a. Tetracyclines b. Penicillins c. Cephalosporins d. Aminoglycosides
Which is the most common type of anemia? a. Iron deficiency

A patient has been prescribed doxycycline For a chlamydia infection. She is healthy and her only oral medication Is combined contraceptive. Her education would include: a. Doxycycline is used for one dose. Treatment of STI's, take the whole prescription at once b. Use a back-up method for birth control (condom) until next menses c. Doxycycline may cause tendonitis and she should report any joint pain d. Her partner will need treatment for infection, doesn't clear with the doxycycline
Which Organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? a. Helicobacter pylori b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Clostridium perfringens d. Treponema pallidum
a 19 - year-old female, is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. What is a considered treatment prescribed? a. Azithromycin b. Metronidazole c. Ciprofloxacin d. Amoxicillin
which patient condition would be a contraindication for the administration of Clindamycin? a. Skin infection b. Ulcerative colitis c. Arthritis d. diabetes mellitus
which of the following statements is (are) True of metronidazole (flagyl)? a. It is used as an anti-protozoal to treat trichomoniasis. b. It is used to treat Clostridium difficile c. All of the answers are correct d. It has a disulfiram like activity.
Therapies for acute uncomplicated urinary tract infection. Include all of the following except: a. Levofloxacin b. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole c. Azithromycin d. Nitrofurantoin
the mechanism(s) Of transmission of community acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureua include(s): a. Skin contact b. all the answers are correct c. Droplets d. Exposure to contaminated objects
The laboratory analysis conducted on a patient with acute onset fever MLAs reveals an elevated neutrophil count. This finding suggests that the problem is most likely a: a. Viral infection. b. Parasitic infection c. Sinus infection d. bacterial infection

The NP is teaching an NP student about sulfasalazine. Which of the following patient situation should the NP student alert the NP? a. A patient with a sulfa allergy b. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis c. A patient with inflammatory bowel disease d. A patient with latex allergy
A patient presents to your clinic with symptoms of a potentially serious gram-negative infection. You decide to give a Cephalosporin antibiotic. Now, while awaiting laboratory results. You choose: a. None of the answers are correct b. Second generation Cephalosporin c. First generation cephalosporin d. 3rd generation Cephalosporin
a patient is seen daily in a community clinic for treatment of a narcotic addiction. Which medication included in the patient's prescription will support the patient's recovery Efforts? a. Flumazenil b. Buprenorphine c. Methadone d. Naloxone
The partial agonism of Buprenorphine at mu opioid receptors is associate with lower abuse a. True b. False
A 64 - year-old male presents with mild to moderate musculoskeletal back pain after playing golf. He states he has tried acetaminophen and that it did not help. His past medical history includes diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, gastric ulcer resolved and coronary artery disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate NSAID regimen to treat his pain? a. Naproxen, and omeprazole b. Celecoxib c. Indomethacin and omeprazole d. Naproxen
a schedule three drug, is ordered for a patient. The patient asks you what the schedule designation means. How will you reply? a. Scheduled drugs are assigned a number based on their potential for abuse b. Schedule three drugs have a high risk for toxicity c. A Schedule 3 means that more pain relief is provided than a scheduled two drug can provide d. This means that the drug has a low number of adverse effects
Which order for furosemide is written appropriately by the prescriber? a. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO QD b. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg daily c. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO daily d. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO qd
Which of these medication orders are complete? Select all that apply a. Promethazine 50 mg IV q3-6h PRN for nausea

NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM ||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS, Exams of Pharmacology

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Download NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM ||2025-2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

NGN ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM

|| 2025 - 2026||ACTUAL EXAM WITH CORRECT

DETAILED ANSWERS/A+GRADE