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NCLEX RN Exam Preparation: Palpitations and Metallic Taste, Exams of Nursing

Incorrect answers and detailed rationales for nclex rn exam questions related to palpitations and metallic taste, helping test-takers understand the reasoning behind the correct answers.

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2023/2024

Available from 04/02/2024

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NCLEX RN NEWEST 2024,2023 AND 2025 (3 LATEST VERSIONS) TEST BANK ACTUAL
EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100
% COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED
A+|BRAN NEW!!2024
A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis
Exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The
nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this
medication?
1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep - ans1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and
involuntary movements
Incorrect - While muscle spasticity and involuntary movements can be symptoms of MS,
a corticosteroid infusion is not meant to directly treat these symptoms.
2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
Incorrect - Special drugs like Interferon Beta, Natalizumab, or Glatiramir acetate are
used as first-line treatments to slow the progression of MS. While corticosteroids can be
used in conjunction with these drugs on a long-term basis, they would not be infused.
They would be taken orally.
3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute
exacerbation and is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.
4. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Incorrect - Some of the frequent side effects of a Methylprednisolone infusion are
anxiety, insomnia, and mood swings.
A 30-year old Caucasian woman who works the night shift has been found to have early
bone loss and has a high risk for osteomalacia and bone degradation. She asks the
nurse exactly why she should take Vitamin D supplements. What is the nurse's best
response?
1. "It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of
osteomalacia"
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the
bloodstream to be used for bone formation."
4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age." - ans1. "It's a
standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
Incorrect - While this is true, it doesn't answer the woman's question.
2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
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EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?

  1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
  2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
  3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
  4. A stabilization of mood and sleep - ans1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements Incorrect - While muscle spasticity and involuntary movements can be symptoms of MS, a corticosteroid infusion is not meant to directly treat these symptoms.
  5. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques Incorrect - Special drugs like Interferon Beta, Natalizumab, or Glatiramir acetate are used as first-line treatments to slow the progression of MS. While corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with these drugs on a long-term basis, they would not be infused. They would be taken orally.
  6. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute exacerbation and is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.
  7. A stabilization of mood and sleep Incorrect - Some of the frequent side effects of a Methylprednisolone infusion are anxiety, insomnia, and mood swings.

A 30-year old Caucasian woman who works the night shift has been found to have early bone loss and has a high risk for osteomalacia and bone degradation. She asks the nurse exactly why she should take Vitamin D supplements. What is the nurse's best response?

  1. "It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia"
  2. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."
  3. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation."
  4. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age." - ans1. "It's a standard part of the overall nutritional treatment for the prevention of osteomalacia" Incorrect - While this is true, it doesn't answer the woman's question.
  5. "It helps your intestines absorb calcium, which is important for bone formation."

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! Correct - This is the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D

  1. "It stimulates skin cells to produce calcium, which is then released into the bloodstream to be used for bone formation." Incorrect- This is not the correct mechanism of action for Vitamin D
  2. "Vitamin D supplements should not be taken by someone of your age." Incorrect - Vitamin D supplements should be taken for patients who are homebound, institutionalized, or by some other limitations, unable to meet daily requirements. This woman works the night shift, which may limit her ability to absorb Vitamin D naturally.

A 45-year old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?

  1. Slurred speech
  2. Sudden dizziness
  3. Masklike facial expression
  4. Stooped Posture - ans1. Slurred speech Incorrect - Slurred speech is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
  5. Sudden dizziness Correct - Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of this drug that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole's drug class is a dopamine agonist, which mimic dopamine in the brain (PD is characterized by a lack of dopamine).
  6. Masklike facial expression Incorrect - Masklike facial expression is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
  7. Stooped Posture Incorrect - Stooped Posture is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.

A 65 year old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?

  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Back Pain
  4. Difficulty Urinating - ans1. Hypotension Correct - Hypotension can lead to dizziness and a risk for injury to the patient.
  5. Tachycardia

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. Metallic taste Incorrect - While this may occur, the patient is at higher risk for another adverse effect.
  2. Hypoglycemia Correct - The patient is at risk because she is on NPO status and continuing to take an anti-glycemic drug.

A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

  1. Hemoglobin 11 g/dl
  2. Platelet of 150,
  3. INR of 2.
  4. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L - ans1. Hemoglobin 11 g/dl This is below normal, but a normal female hemoglobin is 12-14. There is a more critical lab result.
  5. Platelet of 150, This is also below the normal values, but is not the most critical lab result.
  6. INR of 2. This is a therapeutic range for a patient who is taking an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation
  7. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L CORRECT - A potassium imbalance for a patient with a history of dysrhythmia can be life-threatening and can lead to cardiac distress.

A man is has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?

  1. Vertigo
  2. Hypotension
  3. Palpitations
  4. Nagging, dry cough - ans1. Vertigo Incorrect - While this may occur, the patient is at higher risk due to another adverse effect.
  5. Hypotension Correct - The patient is particularly at risk for hypotension due to possible dehydration from fluid loss.
  6. Palpitations

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! Incorrect - While this may occur, the patient is at higher risk for another adverse effect.

  1. Nagging, dry cough Incorrect - While this is a common side effect, the patient is at higher risk for another adverse effect..

A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?

  1. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
  2. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
  3. The patient has a rashy pruritis on his arms and legs
  4. The patient presents as severely depressed
  5. The patient's lithium level is 1.3 mcg/L - ans1. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago Incorrect - Having a manic episode is not an indication of lithium toxicity. This finding indicates that the lithium is not effective or is not at a therapeutic level.
  6. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day Correct - Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity.
  7. The patient has a rashy pruritis on his arms and legs Incorrect - This is not a symptom of lithium toxicity
  8. The patient presents as severely depressed Incorrect - Having a depressive episode is not an indication of lithium toxicity. This finding indicates that the lithium is not effective or is not at a therapeutic level.
  9. The patient's lithium level is 1.3 mcg/L This is within the therapeutic range of lithium

A man is receiving heparin subcutaneously. The patient has dementia and lives at home with a part-time caretaker. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of heparin?

  1. Back Pain
  2. Fever and Chills
  3. Risk for Bleeding
  4. Dizziness - ans1. Back Pain Incorrect - Back pain, while it can occur, is not an immediate concern
  5. Fever and Chills Incorrect - Fever and Chills, while it can occur, is not an immediate concern

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. Turn the patient to his/her side Correct - Turning the patient to the side will keep the airway open, which is the first priority
  2. Call the physician Incorrect - This would be a priority action after ensuring the patient's safety, or in the case of Status epilepticus
  3. Suction the patient Incorrect - This intervention is warranted, but after an assessment of the patient's airway, since forcing a suction catheter into a patient's mouth is a last resort.

A nurse finds a 30-year-old woman experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

  1. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  2. Check for a pulse
  3. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
  4. Stay with the woman until help comes - ans1. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation Incorrect - CPR is premature at this point, and there is another action that can be taken first.
  5. Check for a pulse This is the first step when assessing for initiation of CPR, but CPR is not the best and first course of action for this situation. The woman is still breathing, which means CPR is not necessary at this time.
  6. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit CORRECT - Many patients who have a known history of anaphylaxis carry epi-pens in their pockets or belongings. This is the best way to stop a hypersensitivity reaction before it becomes life-threatening.
  7. Stay with the woman until help comes Incorrect - While this should be done, it's not the best and first course of action.

A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

  1. INR is 3 seconds long
  2. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
  3. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg
  4. Blood pressure is 140/80 - ans1. INR is 3 seconds long

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! Incorrect - This is actually within a therapeutic range for clotting times for patients with coagulation risks. A normal INR is .9-1.2 seconds, while a therapeutic INR can be as high as 3.5 seconds.

  1. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute Incorrect - While tachycardia is a concern, general tachycardia without other associated symptoms would not pose an immediate danger, and is not of greater priority than the next answer.
  2. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg Correct - The patient is at greatest risk for an increased ICP resulting from edema 72 hours after a stroke. A target ICP should be less than or equal to 15-20 mm/Hg
  3. Blood pressure is 140/ Incorrect - Blood pressure is often kept higher than usual following a stroke to maintain perfusion. Systolic BP higher than 180, or diastolic BP higher than 105, would be the upper limit and required intervention. 140/80 would not pose an immediate danger to the patient's health.

A nurse in the emergency room receives a patient who had his left elbow fractured in a fight. He had waited 5 hours before coming to the emergency room. His left hand has an unequal radial pulse, is swollen, and is numb and tingling. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

  1. Place the patient in a supine position
  2. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
  3. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
  4. Start an IV in the other arm. - ans1. Place the patient in a supine position Incorrect - While this may be a beneficial intervention if the arm is also elevated to prevent swelling, this is not a priority intervention.
  5. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. Incorrect - While assessing pain is a part of the 6 P's of neurovascular assessment, the question asks for an intervention based on already alarming assessment findings.
  6. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing Incorrect - The assessment findings indicate the patient may have Acute Compartment Syndrome. Causing more external pressure with a dressing will only exacerbate the condition.
  7. Start an IV in the other arm. Correct - Starting an IV is a nursing priority prior to emergency surgery. The patient may be in the late stages of Acute Compartment Syndrome and may need a fasciotomy, in which the surgeon relieves pressure by making an incision into the affected area.

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! Incorrect - While assessing pedal pulse is important during a neurovascular assessment, it is not relevant to FES. Capillary refill is the least reliable indicator of poor perfusion

  1. Administer a stool softener as ordered Incorrect - While this is an important intervention for patients on bedrest, it is not an intervention relevant to FES

A nurse is caring for a patient after a coronary angiogram. Which of these actions taken by the nursing assistant would most require the nurse's immediate intervention?

  1. The nursing assistant fills the patient's pitcher with ice cold drinking water
  2. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal
  3. The nursing assistant refills the ice pack laying on the insertion site
  4. The nursing assistant places an extra pillow under the patient's head on request - ans1. The nursing assistant fills the patient's pitcher with ice cold drinking water Incorrect - It is recommended to generously hydrate after a coronary angiogram to excrete contrast medium, reducing kidney toxicity
  5. The nursing assistant elevates the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a meal Correct - For 3-6 hours after a coronary angiogram (depending on the insertion site), the patient should have their bed no higher than 30 degrees and be on bedrest.
  6. The nursing assistant refills the ice pack laying on the insertion site Incorrect - An ice pack or dressing is recommended to be placed on the insertion site to minimize risk of bleeding.
  7. The nursing assistant places an extra pillow under the patient's head on request Incorrect - An extra pillow will not violate any post-procedural protocols for coronary angiogram.

A nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac care unit who is taking bumetanide (Bumex) and is diagnosed with Parkinson's Disease. An unlicensed assistive personnel is assisting with feeding the patient. Which of these foods would the nurse stress for the patient to eat most?

  1. Foods containing the least amount of salt
  2. Foods containing the most amount of potassium
  3. Foods containing the most amount of calories
  4. Foods containing the most amount of fiber - ans1. Foods containing the least amount of salt Incorrect - While this is a good practice, in light of the information given, this is not the greatest priority.
  5. Foods containing the most amount of potassium

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! Correct - Bumex is a loop diuretic and can cause hypokalemia. Ensuring potassium is included in the diet is a priority and can directly avoid a hypokalemic crisis.

  1. Foods containing the most amount of calories Incorrect - While this is a good practice, in light of the information given, this is not the greatest priority.
  2. Foods containing the most amount of fiber Incorrect - While this is a good practice, in light of the information given, this is not the greatest priority.

A nurse is caring for a patient scheduled to have cataract surgery. The patient asks why they developed cataracts and how they can prevent it from happening again. What is the nurse's best response?

  1. "Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts."
  2. "Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts"
  3. "Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts."
  4. "Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions." - ans1. "Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts." Incorrect - While true, this answer leaves out many other contributing factors to cataracts and does not address prevention.
  5. "Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts" Incorrect - While true, this answer is not complete
  6. "Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to cataracts." Correct - This answer covers the most common contributing factors for cataracts and includes preventable risk factors.
  7. "Unfortunately, there is really nothing you can do to prevent cataracts, but they are amongst the most easily treated eye conditions." Incorrect - While most cataracts are age-related cataracts, there are still ways to prevent eye damage and cataract development.

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing a stress test on a treadmill. The patient turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?

  1. "I'm feeling extremely thirsty. I'm going to get some water after this."
  2. "I can feel my heart racing."
  3. "My shoulder and arm is hurting."

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. The capillary refill time is 2 seconds
  2. The patient complains of itching and discomfort
  3. The cast has a foul-smelling odor
  4. The patient is on antibiotics - ans1. The capillary refill time is 2 seconds Incorrect - A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is within normal limits. Capillary refill is the least reliable method of assessing neurovascular integrity.
  5. The patient complains of itching and discomfort Incorrect - This is a common effect of a cast
  6. The cast has a foul-smelling odor Correct - A foul-smelling odor is a sign of infection or a pressure ulcer within the cast. Other symptoms include a feeling of warmth, tightness and pain.
  7. The patient is on antibiotics Incorrect - This is not an assessment finding and is not relevant to this situation.

A nurse is educating a patient about bimatoprost (Lumigan) eyedrops for the treatment of Glaucoma. Which of the following indicates that the patient has a correct understanding of the expected outcomes following treatment?

  1. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision"
  2. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse."
  3. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so."
  4. "This medication will help my eye restore intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure" - ans1. "I should be experiencing less blurriness in my central field of vision" Incorrect - Cataracts cause blurriness in the central field of vision, while Glaucoma presents as loss of the field of vision peripherally.
  5. "This medication won't help my vision at all, but will keep it from getting worse." Correct - Glaucoma cannot be cured, just treated. Treatment revolves around preventing further deterioration.
  6. "My peripheral vision should be increasing back to its normal state, but will take a few weeks to do so." Incorrect - Glaucoma treatment does not result in restoration of vision already lost.
  7. "This medication will help my eye restore intraocular fluid and increase intraocular pressure" Glaucoma is caused by an increase in intraocular fluid. Eyedrops work in various ways to decrease Intraocular Pressure, not increase it.

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!! A nurse is giving a discharge education to a patient who has been diagnosed with epilepsy. Which of these teachings would she stress the most?

  1. Avoid doing alcohol and drugs
  2. Follow up with the neurologist, physician, or other health care provider as prescribed
  3. Do not stop taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have stopped
  4. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy - ans1. Avoid doing alcohol and drugs Incorrect - Although this is a general teaching that would be applied to any hospital discharge situation, it is not the priority to be stressed.
  5. Follow up with the neurologist, physician, or other health care provider as prescribed Incorrect - Although this is correct to include in discharge education, following this instruction is not directly contributing to their safety, so is not the priority.
  6. Do not stop taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have stopped Correct - Following this instruction is essential for their safety, since stopping anti- epileptic drugs suddenly can cause seizures and an increased chance of status epilecticus
  7. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy Incorrect - Although this is correct to include in discharge education, following this instruction is not directly contributing to their safety, so is not the priority.

A nurse is meeting a patient in their home. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the nurse needs to contact the physician?

  1. "I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals."
  2. "My back pain right now is about a 3/10."
  3. "I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen"
  4. "I have ringing in my ears." - ans1. "I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals." Incorrect - This is a common and less severe side effect of Naproxen
  5. "My back pain right now is about a 3/10." Incorrect - Although a 3/10 is bordering on the acceptable amount of pain, this would not be the most pressing issue at hand.
  6. "I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen" Incorrect - This is a common and less severe side effect of Naproxen
  7. "I have ringing in my ears." Correct - This is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen and should be reported immediately since it may indicate toxicity.

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior Incorrect - An endoscopic procedure two days prior does not contraindicate percussion and palpation.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with severe Gastroesophogeal Reflux Disease. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?

  1. "I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion."
  2. "I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep"
  3. "I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate any more."
  4. "I'm going to start trying to lose some weight." - ans1. "I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion." CORRECT - Large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach and delay gastric emptying. It's recommended instead to eat 4-6 small meals a day.
  5. "I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep" Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD.
  6. "I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate any more." Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD.
  7. "I'm going to start trying to lose some weight." Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD.

A nurse is treating a patient suspected to have Hepatitis. The nurse notes on assessment that the patient's eyes are yellow-tinged. Which of these diagnostic results would further assist in confirming this diagnosis?

  1. Decreased serum Bilirubin
  2. Elevated serum ALT levels
  3. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs
  4. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level - ans1. Decreased serum Bilirubin Incorrect - Bilirubin levels correlate with the appearance of Jaundice. An increased serum bilirubin would be the expected finding for this patient.
  5. Elevated serum ALT levels Correct - ALT is a liver enzyme, and hepatitis is a liver disease. Elevated liver enzymes will often signal liver damage.

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. Low RBC and Hemoglobin with increased WBCs Incorrect - This is not a common finding for Hepatitis patients
  2. Increased Blood Urea Nitrogen level Incorrect - BUN is an indicator of renal (kidney) health, not hepatic (liver) function.

A nurse knows that which of these patients are at greatest risk for a developing osteoporosis?

  1. An 80-year old man who has a thin build
  2. A 48-year old african american female who smokes cigarettes and drinks alcohol
  3. A 55-year old female with an estrogen deficiency
  4. A 70-year old caucasian female who takes oral corticosteroids - ans1. An 80-year old man who has a thin build Incorrect - Age and thin build are two primary risk factors, but another patient has more.
  5. A 48-year old african american female who smokes cigarettes and drinks alcohol Smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol are both primary risk factors, but being African American actually decreases the risk for osteoporosis
  6. A 55-year old female with an estrogen deficiency Incorrect - Only two risk factors are present: being female, and having an estrogen deficiency. While her age is somewhat advanced, 65+ years of age is the 'cut-off' for having a risk factor in women.
  7. A 70-year old caucasian female who takes oral corticosteroids Correct - This patient has by far the most risk factors, 3 of which are primary and one secondary. Age, gender, ethnicity are three primary risk factors, while her corticosteroid treatment is the secondary risk factor, bringing her total up to four.

A nurse knows that which of these patients are at greatest risk for a stroke?

  1. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past.
  2. A 75-year old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic.
  3. A 40-year old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
  4. A 65-year old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease and smokes cigarettes. - ans1. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past. Correct - Common risk factors for developing stroke include: Atrial fibrillation, arteriosclerosis, previous stroke or ischemic attack, heart surgery, valvular heart

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. A 35-year old woman with Multiple Sclerosis and has been trying to conceive.
  2. A 67-year old man who has had an open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
  3. A 40-year old woman who has been in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days. - ans1. A 20-year old woman who has unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. Correct - MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI.
  4. A 35-year old woman with Multiple Sclerosis and has been trying to conceive. Incorrect - Pregnant women, or women who have a possibility of being pregnant, are not recommended to receive MRIs.
  5. A 67-year old man who has had an open-heart surgery 4 years ago. Incorrect - Patients with pacemakers, stents, or implants should not have MRIs. More information would have to be gathered about this patient before an MRI can be done.
  6. A 40-year old woman who has been in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days. Incorrect - Hypomania is a mild form of mania, and a patient with hypomania would have a very difficult time laying still in a supine position for up to an hour. Sedation may be required, which requires more information and assessment of this patient.

A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

  1. The patient is in the late-stage of dementia.
  2. The patient has a history of bronchitis
  3. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past
  4. The patient is on beta-blockers - ans1. The patient is in the late-stage of dementia. Correct - Having an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently is a contraindication for a CPAP machine, which can only function correctly with proper installation and use.
  5. The patient has a history of bronchitis Incorrect - This is not a contraindication for using a CPAP machine
  6. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past Incorrect - This is not a contraindication for using a CPAP machine
  7. The patient is on beta-blockers Incorrect - This is not a contraindication for using a CPAP machine

A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?

  1. "Heparin will dissolve clots that you have."

EXAM 2500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 100 % COMPLETE (VERIFIED ANSWERS)/ RN NCLEX TEST BANK|ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAN NEW!!

  1. "Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot"
  2. "Heparin will work better than warfarin."
  3. "Heparin will prevent new clots from developing." - ans1. "Heparin will dissolve clots that you have." Incorrect - Heparin does not do this.
  4. "Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot" Incorrect - Heparin does not do this
  5. "Heparin will work better than warfarin." Incorrect - Heparin has a different mechanism of action than warfarin, and a different route of administration, but achieve similar results.
  6. "Heparin will prevent new clots from developing." Correct -This is a correct statement.

A patient has been taking a mood stabilizing medication, but is afraid of needles. They ask the nurse what medication would NOT require regular lab testing. What is the nurse's best response?

  1. Valproic Acid (Depakote)
  2. Clozapine (Clozaril)
  3. Lithium
  4. Risperidone (Risperdal) - ans1. Valproic Acid (Depakote) Incorrect
  5. Clozapine (Clozaril) Incorrect
  6. Lithium Incorrect
  7. Risperidone (Risperdal) Correct - Risperidone is the only drug that does not require blood draws.

A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

  1. Abdominal distention
  2. A bruit near the epigastric area
  3. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
  4. Blood pressure of 160/90 - ans1. Abdominal distention Incorrect - While this is a relevant assessment finding, it is not the priority assessment.
  5. A bruit near the epigastric area Correct - A bruit in the aortic area signals the presence of an aneurysm. This is life- threatening and must be reported immediately.