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NCLEX-PN TEST BANK (2024/2025) Questions, Answers plus Rationale, Exams of Nursing

NCLEX-PN TEST BANK (2024/2025) Questions, Answers plus Rationale /NCLEX-PN TEST BANK (2024/2025) Questions, Answers plus Rationale /NCLEX-PN TEST BANK (2024/2025) Questions, Answers plus Rationale

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NCLEX
Exam NCLEX-PN
National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN)
Version: 5.0
[ Total Questions: 725 ]
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Download NCLEX-PN TEST BANK (2024/2025) Questions, Answers plus Rationale and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

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NCLEX

Exam NCLEX-PN

National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN)

Version: 5.

[ Total Questions: 725 ]

Topic break down

Topic No. of Questions Topic 1: Questions Set A 100 Topic 2: Questions Set B 100 Topic 3: Questions Set C 100 Topic 4: Questions Set D 91 Topic 5: Questions Set E 91 Topic 6: Questions Set F 243

Broccoli, oranges, dark greens, and dark yellow vegetables can be eaten to:

A. supplement vitamin pills. B. balance body molecules. C. cure many diseases. D. help improve body defenses.

Answer: D Explanation:

Controversy over what types of food to eat and not eat is still under investigation. Certain foods can help improve body defenses to possibly prevent certain diseases.Nonpharmacological Therapies

The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are:

A. potassium and chloride. B. potassium and phosphate. C. sodium and chloride. D. sodium and phosphate.

Answer: C Explanation:

Sodium and chloride are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 3 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 4 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 5 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson’s disease progresses and complications develop?

A. Impaired Physical Mobility B. Dysreflexia C. Hypothermia D. Impaired Dentition

Answer: A Explanation:

The client with Parkinson’s disease can develop a shuffling gait and rigidity, causing impaired physical mobility. The other diagnoses do not necessarily relate to a client with Parkinson’s disease.Reduction of Risk Potential

Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

A. Transfuse netrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection. B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet. C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories. D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client’s room.

Answer: A Explanation:

Granulocyte transfusion is not indicated to prevent infection. Produced in the bone marrow, granulocytes normally comprise 70% of all WBCs. They are subdivided into three types based on staining properties: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected

Question No : 6 - (Topic 1)

Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. Choices 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because prolonged use of acetaminophen might result in an increased risk of renal dysfunction, but a single overdose does not precipitate life-threatening problems in the respiratory system, renal system, or adrenal glands.Pharmacological Therapies

All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

A. high infant mortality rate. B. frequent use of Emergency Departments. C. consultation with folk healers. D. low incidence of dental problems.

Answer: D Explanation:

Dental problems are prevalent because of the lack of preventive care and access to care. High infant mortality is one of the most significant problems correlated with poverty. Pregnant women who do not have access to care might come to the Emergency Department when in labor. Those in poverty are likely to use Emergency Departments because they may not be turned away. Those in poverty might also turn to folk healers or other persons in their community for care who might be easier to access and might not demand payment.Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 9 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 10 - (Topic 1)

Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

A. HIV.

B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV. C. CMV. D. influenza A viruses.

Answer: B Explanation:

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specific for treatment of herpes virus infections. There is no cure for herpes. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine and therefore must be used cautiously in the presence of renal impairment. Drugs that treat herpes inhibit viral DNA replication by competing with viral substrates to form shorter, ineffective DNA chains.Physiological Adaptation

Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley’s level of anxiety as:

A. mild. B. moderate. C. severe. D. panic.

Answer: C Explanation:

The person whose anxiety is assessed as severe is unable to solve problems and has a poor grasp of what’s happening in his or her environment. Somatic symptoms such as those described by Ashley are usually present.

Question No : 11 - (Topic 1)

Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

A. variable decelerations B. early decelerations C. bradycardia D. tachycardia

Answer: A Explanation:

Variable decelerations can be related to cord compression. The other patterns are not.Reduction of Risk Potential

The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:

A. human papilloma virus, genital herpes, measles. B. pneumonia, HIV, mumps. C. syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia. D. polio, pertussis, measles.

Answer: D Explanation:

Vaccines are one of the most effective methods of preventing and controlling certain communicable diseases. The smallpox vaccine is not currently in use because the smallpox virus has been declared eradicated from the world’s population. Diseases such as polio, diphtheria, pertussis, and measles are mostly controlled by routine childhood immunization. They have not, however, been eradicated, so children need to be immunized against these diseases.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 14 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following conditions is mammography used to detect?

A. pain B. tumor C. edema D. epilepsy

Answer: B Explanation:

Mammography is used to detect tumors or cysts in the breasts, not the other conditions.Reduction of Risk Potential

When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client’s body should she measure?

A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear C. tip of the chin to the sternum D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Answer: A Explanation:

An oropharyngeal airway is measured from the corner of the client’s mouth, to the tragus of the ear. Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 15 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 16 - (Topic 1)

A. school nurse B. peers C. parents D. media

Answer: C Explanation:

Parents are the primary force in sex education in a child’s life. The school nurse is involved with formal sex education and counseling. Peers become more important in sex education during adolescence but might lack correct information. The media play a powerful role in what children learn about sex through movies, TV, and video games.Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Answer: C Explanation:

In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows: Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 – 6 = 12. An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth.Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 20 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

A. metoclopramide (Reglan) B. onedansetron (Zofran) C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril) D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Answer: B Explanation:

Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. The other medications can be used for nausea and vomiting, but they have different mechanisms of action.Physiological Adaptation

A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:

A. plantar fasciitis. B. hallux valgus. C. hammertoe. D. Morton’s neuroma.

Answer: D Explanation:

Morton’s neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot. Hallux valgus is referred to in lay terms as abunion.Hammertoe is where one toe is cocked up over another toe. Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation

Question No : 21 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 22 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?

A. open leg fracture B. open head injury C. stab wound to the chest D. traumatic amputation of a thumb

Answer: C Explanation:

A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions.Physiological Adaptation

Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care. B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing. C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications. D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

Answer: C Explanation:

Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications.

Question No : 25 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 26 - (Topic 1)

Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until is has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident.Physiological Adaptation

Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?

A. “I should put alcohol on my baby’s cord 3–4 times a day.” B. “I should put the baby’s diaper on so that it covers the cord.” C. “I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark.” D. “I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord.”

Answer: D Explanation:

Parents should be taught to wash their hands before and after providing cord care. This prevents transferring pathogens to and from the cord. Folding the diaper below the cord exposes the cord to air and allows for drying.

Question No : 27 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

A. Dysreflexia B. Risk for Injury C. Urinary Retention D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Answer: B Explanation:

The epileptic client is at risk for injury due to the complications of seizure activity, such as possible head trauma associated with a fall. The other choices are not related to the question.Reduction of Risk Potential

Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?

A. metastatic liver cancer B. gram-negative septicemia C. pernicious anemia D. iron-deficiency anemia

Answer: C Explanation:

Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. This can result from inadequate dietary intake, faulty absorption from the GI tract due to a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor normally produced by gastric mucosal cells and certain disorders of the small intestine that impair absorption. The nurse should instruct the client in the need for lifelong replacement of vitamin B12, as well as the need for

Question No : 29 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 30 - (Topic 1)

folic acid, rest, diet, and support.Physiological Adaptation

When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

A. 2 liters/minute B. 4 liters/minute C. 6 liters/minute D. 8 liters/minute

Answer: C Explanation:

The highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Higher flow rates must be delivered by mask.Reduction of Risk Potential

The kind of man who beats a woman is:

A. from a minority culture in a low-income group. B. from a majority culture in a middle-income group. C. one who was never allowed to compete as a child. D. from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession.

Answer: D Explanation:

Batterers cannot be predicted by demographic features related to age, ethnicity, race, religious denomination, education, socioeconomic status, or class. Ninety-five percent of domestic abuse cases

Question No : 31 - (Topic 1)

Question No : 32 - (Topic 1)