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NCLEX PN Questions
Reduce symptoms of Raynauds disease? - Answer--Wearing gloves when handling frozen food
What is Raynauds disease? - Answer--reduced blood flow due to spasm of arteries of the feet and hands
When removing a chest tube, what should you instruct the patient to do? - Answer--hold breathe and bear down
When you notice blanching, coldness and edema at the IV site, what should you do? - Answer--Remove the IV
What is considered a normal Blood Glucose level? - Answer-- 70 - 100
What PPE to use for MRSA patient? - Answer--Gloves
Gown
Goggles
Mask
What is an EARLY sign of digoxin toxicity, from the drug digoxin? - Answer--Anorexia
What are normal Magnesium levels? - Answer--1.6 - 2.6 mg
What are signs of elevated magnesium levels? - Answer--Drowsiness
Sedation
Lethargy
Muscle weakness
Areflexia
What is Areflexia? - Answer--Absence of the reflexes
What position should you place a patient with acute epiglottitis? - Answer--Sit upright
What position to use for Soapsuds enema? - Answer--Left side SIMS position
What is the 1st step when looking into the NCLEX exam? - Answer--Step 1: Access the NCSBN website at
www.ncsbn.org
(Obtain info for international nurses)
For state licensing? - Answer--Contact the state in which you are taking the NCLEX in and determine specific requirements for that state
What is the process for sending the state official documents? - Answer--They must come from the "Licensing Authority"
Is the NCLEX exam administered in other languages? - Answer--No
(ONLY in English)
When noticing that the fundus of a postpartum patient is soft and spongy, what should you do? - Answer--Massage the fundus gently until it is firm
Drugs that end in "lol" are normally used for what? - Answer--Beta Blocker (for hypertension) ("Lo" Lowers the BP)
What OTC tabs should patients not take with medication? - Answer--Antacids tabs (effects the absorption of the med)
Which tabs should not be crushed? - Answer--Enteric Coated/sustained release tabs
Can nurses adjust or change a patients medication? - Answer--NO (only the Doctor can do this)
T/F Patients should consult a doctor before taking OTC or any herbal preparations? - Answer--True
Can Abandonment charges be filed against nurses who walk out if staffing is inadequate? - Answer--Yes
Can nurses refuse to float? - Answer--No, unless their Union contract states they only work in a specific area
Do Nurses need to get their own Insurance against malpractice? - Answer--YES
Who issued the Patients Bill of Rights? - Answer--American Hospital Association
What is habeas Corpus, and can a mentally ill patient request it? - Answer--Requesting a release from care/Yes they can
T/F Catholics, Christians and Jehovah witness are the only religions that allow organ donations? - Answer--True
T/F Orthodox Judaism may allow organ donation with the Rabbis approval? - Answer--True
What are Incident reports used for? - Answer--Identifying risk situations and Improving care
Do Incident reports get filed in the Patients record? - Answer--No
What are the components of a medication prescription? - Answer--Date/Time
Med name
Dosage
Route
Frequency
Signature
How is a Telephone medication order abbreviated? - Answer--t.o
Can a nurse sign or be a witness to a signature for a "Living Will" for her patient? - Answer--No, must be signed by someone who isn't staff or be notarized
What is managed care? - Answer--Strategies used to reduce the cost of health care.
T/F Case management involves collaboration with an Interprofessional health care team? - Answer-- TRUE
Risk of infections
When does discharge planning begin? - Answer--When patient is admitted
What is Priority 1, 2, and 3 of the Emergency room triage? - Answer--Priority 1-Emergent (Chest pain, respiratory distress, major arterial bleed, chemical splashes to the eye)
Priority 2-Urgent (Not life-threatening, unless not treated within 1-2 hours, eval every 30-60 mins)
Priority 3-Minor issues, eval every 1-2 hours)
What is Phlebitis? - Answer--Inflammation of a vein
What id Third Spacing? - Answer--The accumulation of extracellular fluid in a body space due to disease or injury
What does Extracellular mean? - Answer--Fluid outside the cells
What does Interstitial mean? - Answer--Fluid between the cells and the blood vessels
Which population is at "higher" risk for fluid related problems? - Answer--infants and Elderly
Water lost through the skin and lungs (expired air) is called? - Answer--Insensible loss
What is Hypokalemia? - Answer--A potassium level lower than 3.5 mEq/L
Can potassium supplement be taken on an empty stomach? - Answer--No, causes nausea and emesis
What else should be performed when a patient is receiving potassium supplements through IV? - Answer--Cardiac monitoring
Can potassium be administer via IV push? - Answer--No, only IV or orally
What level is the sodium when a patient has hyponatremia? - Answer--Sodium level will be less than 135
What is the antidote for magnesium overdose? - Answer--Calcium gluconate
Why is a patient with a nasogastric suction at risk of potassium deficit? - Answer--Potassium rich fluids are lost through GI suctions
Patients with Addisons disease are at risk for what? - Answer--Hyperkalemia
(High potassium)
When a patient has hyperkalemia, what can you expect to see on an EKG? - Answer--Narrow peaked T waves
What is an insensible fluid loss? - Answer--Cant be measured
(Through skin and lungs)
Can a patient with a fast respiratory rate be susceptible to "Insensitive" fluid loss? - Answer--Yes
(From the lungs)
What 4 patients may be at risk for "Third Spacing"? - Answer---Renal failure
In Alkalosis the pH is up or down? - Answer--Up
Can you use the arm that has an infusion going for blood draws? - Answer--No, it can give inaccurate results
(Try and draw blood 1 hour prior to intermittent heparin)
Clenching/unclenching of the fist during a blood draw can cause what inaccurate result? - Answer-- Potassium level
If the aPTT value is prolonged longer than ___ seconds in a patient receiving heparin, initiate bleeding precautions? - Answer--90 seconds
If the PT value is longer longer than ___ seconds in a patient receiving warfarin, initiate bleeding precautions? - Answer--30 seconds
What should you monitor in a patient receiving Chemo due to the risk of Thrombocytopenia? - Answer-- Platelet count
What is the normal RBC for a male and female? - Answer--Female 4.0 - 5.
Male. 4.5 - 6.
If a patient is experiencing dyspnea and has an elevated BNP, what is the diagnosis? - Answer--Heart failure
(If the BNP is normal, the the dyspnea is a result of respiratory distress)
In "acute" pancreatitis the amylase levels may exceed how many times the normal limit? - Answer-- times
(Levels start rising around 6 hours of the onset of pain, peaks at 24 hours)
In "chronic" pancreatitis the serum amylase levels may increase how many times the normal limit? - Answer--3 times (normally does not exceed 3)
What are the fat soluble vitamins? - Answer--ADEK
(Excess causes toxicity)
What is a mechanical diet? - Answer--Meals that are prepared for easy swallowing
(Avoid nuts, dried, salty foods)
What type of candy can you offer a patient who has reduced salivary flow? - Answer--Sour candy
Foods low in potassium? - Answer--Applesauce
Grapes
Blueberries
Raspberries
Most Green veggies
Can you give a patient hard candy to relieve thirst? - Answer--Yes
How can you determine the patients BMI? - Answer--Divide the weight (kilo) by the height (meters squared)
What is Enteral nutrition? - Answer--Feeding through the GI tract
Herring
Scallops
Mackerel
Wild game
Sweetbreads
What are a few foods high in riboflavin? - Answer--Milk
Lean meats
Fish
Grains
Can you write on the outside of IV bags? - Answer--No
(Use a label instead)
Why are the veins in the forearm mist commonly used for IV sites? - Answer--They provide natural support and splint
Why is a patient with heart failure not given saline solutions? - Answer--Increases fluid overload and exacerbates heart failure
Why is a patient with kidney disease/failure not supposed to receive lactated ringers? - Answer-- Contains a potassium solution
How are Central venous catheters position determined? - Answer--Xray
What position should the patient be in for central line insertion, removal and tubing change? - Answer-- Trendelenburg
Washed red blood cells may be ordered for what 2 types of issues? - Answer--1) Recent allergic reaction to transfusion
- Recent stem cell transplant
How are platelets administered? - Answer--Rapidly over 15-30 mins
What is the Universal RBC donor? - Answer--O negative
Who is the Universal recipient? - Answer--AB positive
If the patient has a reaction to blood, where should the blood bag be returned to? - Answer--Blood bank
Hold off on giving the patient blood if the temp exceeds? - Answer--100 F
How long should the nurse remain with the patient who has just received a blood transfusion? - Answer- -15 mins
How often should you check on a patient who is receiving fluid replacement therapy? - Answer--Every hour
What is the limit of time a caregiver should be exposed to radiation per shift? - Answer--30 mins MAX
What should you do with a dislodged radiation implant? - Answer--Don't touch it
Can needles be recapped? - Answer--No, but if you have to, use a mechanical device to recap
What type of dropper should you use for children? - Answer--Calibrated dropper
How should you administer Regular and NPH insulin? - Answer--Mix both in the same syringe (Regular than NPH)
Can the nurse speed up an IV infusion rate if the schedule is running late? - Answer--No
How many of the 30 compressions should you let completely recoil during CPR? - Answer--23 of the 30
For CPR purposes, a child is defined as what age range? - Answer--1 through 8
What are the 3 post operative stages? - Answer--Immediate 1-4 hours
Intermediate 4-24 hours
Extended 1-4 days
How often should you turn a post-operative client that cant get from bed? - Answer--every 1-2 hours
What is the most common post operative complication? - Answer--Atelectasis, the collapse of the alveoli (occurs 1-2 days after surgery)
What is wound evisceration, and when does it normally happen? - Answer--The protrusion of internal organs through an incision (occurs 6-8 days after surgery)
How long prior to surgery should a client discontinue aspirin use? - Answer--48 hours
What is the normal urine output of a post operative patient? - Answer--30ml every 2 hours
Fowlers & Semi fowlers is what position? - Answer--semi sitting with head raised
What is the Trendelenburg position? - Answer--Lower body raised (reserve is upper body raised)
What position should a patient be that had a mastectomy? - Answer--Semi-fowlers with affected side arm raised to heart level
For vaginal or anal exams, what should the position be? - Answer--Lithotomy
What should you do when a patient who is tube feeding needs to be turned? - Answer--Turn off feeding until completed
What is the most common position for a cardiac or respiratory patient? - Answer--Head of the bed raised
What is Autonomic Dysreflexia, and which position should the patient be placed in? - Answer--Caused when a painful stimulus occurs below the level of spinal cord injury. (High Fowlers position)
What position should the patient with a Head Injury NOT be placed in? - Answer--Flat of Trendelenburg
During Cardiac catheterization what position should the patient be in? - Answer--Head elevated NO MORE than 30 degrees
After cataract surgery, instruct the patient to sleep in which position? - Answer--on back or non- operative side
What position should the patient be for an insertion of a nasogastric tube for continuous feeding? - Answer--Head at at least 45 degree
What does a Pericardial friction rub sound like? - Answer--Loud booming/muffled heartbeat
A patient with hyperparathyroidism is likely to have elevated calcium levels, which foods should they avoid? - Answer--dairy products such as milk, cheese, ice cream, or yogurt.
A client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube in place to treat esophageal varices suddenly becomes restless, the heart rate and blood pressure increase, what is the immediate nursing action? - Answer-- cut the tube and pull it out
The older patient is at risk for falls due to what? - Answer--Changes in the Neurological and Muscleskeletal systems
What is a common adverse reaction to medication in the older patient? - Answer--Change in mental health status
When residual formula is noted in a scheduled feeding, at which point would you hold the feeding? - Answer--any residual more than 100ml (test residual for pH balance, should be 3.5 or less)
How fast should intermittent feedings last? - Answer--administer over 30-60 mins
What are the 3 systems of personality? - Answer--ID, Ego and SuperEgo (The have different operating principles, but in a mature/well adjusted personality, they work together under the command of the EGO)
When does the SuperEgo emerge? - Answer--Phallic Stage (3-6 years old)
What is the drug Questran used for? - Answer--Lower cholesterol
