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NCLEX 001 Questions with answers 2023, Exams of Nursing

NCLEX 001 Questions with answers 2023

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 08/04/2023

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NCLEX 001 Questions with answers
2023
The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and
Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30
years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
2. A narrowed chest cavity
3. Clubbed fingers
4. An increased risk of cardiac failure
1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full
exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Incorrect.
2. A narrowed chest cavity
A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened
chest cavity. Incorrect.
3. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT
Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels.
4. An increased risk of cardiac failure
Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for
cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding.
Incorrect.
The nurse is taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a
Duodenal Ulcer. After being told the patient is complaining of epigastric pain, the
nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
1. Melena
2. Nausea
3. Hernia
4. Hyperthermia
1. Melena - CORRECT
Melena is the finding that there are traces of blood in the stool which presents as
black, tarry feces. This is a common manifestation of Duodenal Ulcers, since the
Duodenum is further down the gastric anatomy.
2. Nausea
Nausea may be present, but is a generalized symptom and by itself doesn't indicate
a Duodenal Ulcer. Incorrect.
3. Hernia
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NCLEX 001 Questions with answers

The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Emphysema and Chronic Bronchitis. After being told the patient has been smoking cigarettes for 30 years, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?

  1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
  2. A narrowed chest cavity
  3. Clubbed fingers
  4. An increased risk of cardiac failure ✔1. Increase in Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) Forced Vital Capacity is the volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation. A patient with COPD would have a decrease in FVC. Incorrect.
  5. A narrowed chest cavity A patient with COPD often presents with a 'barrel chest,' which is seen as a widened chest cavity. Incorrect.
  6. Clubbed fingers - CORRECT Clubbed fingers are a sign of a long-term, or chronic, decrease in oxygen levels.
  7. An increased risk of cardiac failure Although a patient with these conditions would indeed be at an increased risk for cardiac failure, this is a potential complication and not an assessment finding. Incorrect. The nurse is taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer. After being told the patient is complaining of epigastric pain, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
  8. Melena
  9. Nausea
  10. Hernia
  11. Hyperthermia ✔1. Melena - CORRECT Melena is the finding that there are traces of blood in the stool which presents as black, tarry feces. This is a common manifestation of Duodenal Ulcers, since the Duodenum is further down the gastric anatomy.
  12. Nausea Nausea may be present, but is a generalized symptom and by itself doesn't indicate a Duodenal Ulcer. Incorrect.
  13. Hernia

A Hernia is a protrusion of a segment of the abdomen through another abdominal structure. It is not associated with an Ulcer and is a condition, not an assessment finding. Incorrect.

  1. Hyperthermia Hyperthermia, a high temperature, is not an assessment finding of a Duodenal Ulcer. Incorrect A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient with severe Gastroesophogeal Reflux Disease. Which of these statements by the patient indicates a need for more teaching?
  2. "I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion."
  3. "I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep"
  4. "I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate any more."
  5. "I'm going to start trying to lose some weight." ✔1. "I'm going to limit my meals to 2-3 per day to reduce acid secretion." CORRECT - Large meals increase the volume and pressure in the stomach and delay gastric emptying. It's recommended instead to eat 4-6 small meals a day.
  6. "I'm going to make sure to remain upright after meals and elevate my head when I sleep" Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD.
  7. "I won't be drinking tea or coffee or eating chocolate any more." Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD.
  8. "I'm going to start trying to lose some weight." Incorrect - This is a correct verbalization of health promotion for GERD. The nurse in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the nurse finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?
  9. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
  10. Ask the patient for a stool sample
  11. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
  12. Administer intramuscular morphine sulphate as ordered ✔1. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm CORRECT - The nurse should suspect that the patient is haemorrhaging and will need need a fluid replacement therapy, which requires a large bore IV.
  13. Ask the patient for a stool sample
  1. Elevate the patient's legs This would help with the edema, but is not a priority
  2. Continue the infusion, since these are normal findings This is not a normal finding The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse to stress?
  3. They must inform household members of their condition
  4. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed
  5. They must abstain from substance use
  6. They must avoid large crowds ✔1. They must inform household members of their condition Incorrect - Each patient has a right to privacy of their medical condition. It is their choice whether they inform household members.
  7. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed CORRECT - Antiretrovirals must be taken exactly as prescribed to prevent drug- resistant strains. Even missed doses can reduce the effectiveness of future treatment.
  8. They must abstain from substance use Incorrect - While substance use should be discouraged, using safe practices with needles can prevent transmission of HIV.
  9. They must avoid large crowds Incorrect - Avoiding large crowds to prevent infection is a priority in the later stages of HIV, when the patient has AIDS. A nurse finds a 30-year-old woman experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?
  10. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  11. Check for a pulse
  12. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
  13. Stay with the woman until help comes ✔1. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation Incorrect - CPR is premature at this point, and there is another action that can be taken first.
  14. Check for a pulse This is the first step when assessing for initiation of CPR, but CPR is not the best and first course of action for this situation. The woman is still breathing, which means CPR is not necessary at this time.
  1. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit CORRECT - Many patients who have a known history of anaphylaxis carry epi-pens in their pockets or belongings. This is the best way to stop a hypersensitivity reaction before it becomes life-threatening.
  2. Stay with the woman until help comes Incorrect - While this should be done, it's not the best and first course of action. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
  3. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
  4. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
  5. The patient has a rashy pruritis on his arms and legs
  6. The patient presents as severely depressed
  7. The patient's lithium level is 1.3 mcg/L ✔1. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago Incorrect - Having a manic episode is not an indication of lithium toxicity. This finding indicates that the lithium is not effective or is not at a therapeutic level.
  8. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day Correct - Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity.
  9. The patient has a rashy pruritis on his arms and legs Incorrect - This is not a symptom of lithium toxicity
  10. The patient presents as severely depressed Incorrect - Having a depressive episode is not an indication of lithium toxicity. This finding indicates that the lithium is not effective or is not at a therapeutic level.
  11. The patient's lithium level is 1.3 mcg/L This is within the therapeutic range of lithium A 65 year old man is prescribed Flomax (Tamsulosin) for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. The patient lives in an upstairs apartment. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of Flomax?
  12. Hypotension
  13. Tachycardia
  14. Back Pain
  15. Difficulty Urinating ✔1. Hypotension Correct - Hypotension can lead to dizziness and a risk for injury to the patient.
  16. Tachycardia Tachycardia can be a side effect of Flomax, but is not an immediate safety risk, nor is it a common side effect.
  1. Hypoglycemia Correct - The patient is at risk because she is on NPO status and continuing to take an anti-glycemic drug. The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient taking lithium for schizoaffective disorder. The lab results show that the blood lithium value is 1.7 mcg/L. What would the nurse take as the priority action?
  2. Induce vomiting
  3. Hold the next dose of Lithium
  4. Administer an anti-emetic
  5. Give the next dose of Lithium ✔1. Induce vomiting Incorrect - This may be warranted for a severe lithium toxicity, but would be premature at this point. Gastric lavage may be attempted if the patient presents within one hour of ingestion, and fluids will be given to restore kidney function and promote the clearance of Lithium from the body..
  6. Hold the next dose of Lithium Correct - Lithium's therapeutic range is 0.5-1.5mcg/L, and begins toxicity at 1.5mcg/L
  7. Administer an anti-emetic Incorrect - While minor toxicity can cause vomiting and nausea, this is not a priority action
  8. Give the next dose of Lithium Incorrect - Lithium's therapeutic range is 0.5-1.5mcg/L, and begins toxicity at 1.5mcg/L A patient asks the nurse why they must have a heparin injection. What is the nurse's best response?
  9. "Heparin will dissolve clots that you have."
  10. "Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot"
  11. "Heparin will work better than warfarin."
  12. "Heparin will prevent new clots from developing." ✔1. "Heparin will dissolve clots that you have." Incorrect - Heparin does not do this.
  13. "Heparin will reduce the platelets that make your blood clot" Incorrect - Heparin does not do this
  14. "Heparin will work better than warfarin." Incorrect - Heparin has a different mechanism of action than warfarin, and a different route of administration, but achieve similar results.
  15. "Heparin will prevent new clots from developing." Correct -This is a correct statement.

The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not completed already, would take priority over the others?

  1. Put the patient in a 90 degree position
  2. Check whether the patient is taking diuretics
  3. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
  4. Check the patient's last ejection fraction ✔1. Put the patient in a 90 degree position Incorrect - This position is optimal for helping a patient breathe, but is not the priority action in an emergency situation.
  5. Check whether the patient is taking diuretics Incorrect - Diuretics play a role in CHF by decreasing fluid volume, but this patient is likely having an acute myocardial infarction.
  6. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads Correct - This patient is undergoing an emergency cardiac event. Normal Troponin T levels are less than 0.2 ng/mL. Ventricular Fibrillation is the cause of death in most cases of deaths due to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillation is the most important action to take to prevent death.
  7. Check the patient's last ejection fraction Incorrect - Ejection fraction is a test used to gauge the severity of CHF, not an emergency cardiac arrest. A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing a stress test on a treadmill. The patient turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?
  8. "I'm feeling extremely thirsty. I'm going to get some water after this."
  9. "I can feel my heart racing."
  10. "My shoulder and arm is hurting."
  11. "My blood pressure reading is 158/80" ✔1. "I'm feeling extremely thirsty. I'm going to get some water after this." Incorrect - This does not require immediate intervention. This is a common response to exercise and activity.
  12. "I can feel my heart racing." Incorrect - This does not require immediate intervention. This is a common response to exercise and activity.
  13. "My shoulder and arm is hurting." Correct - Unilateral arm and shoulder pain is one of the classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia. The stress test should be halted.
  1. The nursing assistant places an extra pillow under the patient's head on request Incorrect - An extra pillow will not violate any post-procedural protocols for coronary angiogram. A man is has been taking lisinopril for CHF. The patient is seen in the emergency room for persistent diarrhea. The nurse is concerned about which side effect of lisinopril?
  2. Vertigo
  3. Hypotension
  4. Palpitations
  5. Nagging, dry cough ✔1. Vertigo Incorrect - While this may occur, the patient is at higher risk due to another adverse effect.
  6. Hypotension Correct - The patient is particularly at risk for hypotension due to possible dehydration from fluid loss.
  7. Palpitations Incorrect - While this may occur, the patient is at higher risk for another adverse effect.
  8. Nagging, dry cough Incorrect - While this is a common side effect, the patient is at higher risk for another adverse effect.. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
  9. Severe and persistent diarrhea
  10. Intense pain in the toe
  11. Yellow-tinged sclera
  12. Headache ✔1. Severe and persistent diarrhea Incorrect - This is not a manifestation of sickle cell disease
  13. Intense pain in the toe Incorrect - Gout is a manifestation of Polycythemia Vera, in which the there is an overabundance of red blood cells
  14. Yellow-tinged sclera Correct - Jaundice is a common clinical finding of sickle cell disease, caused by bilirubin released from damaged or destroyed RBCs
  15. Headache

Incorrect - While this may occur, it is not indicative or a classic symptom of sickle cell disease. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

  1. alprazolam (Xanax)
  2. Corticosteroid injection
  3. gabapentin (Neurontin)
  4. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco) ✔1. alprazolam (Xanax) Incorrect - alprazolam is used to reduce anxiety
  5. Corticosteroid injection Incorrect - Corticosteroid injections are used to reduce inflammation in a localized area, often due to joint breakdown. In MS patients it is used to treat acute exacerbations ("flare-ups"), but the symptoms described do not constitute an acute exacerbation.
  6. gabapentin (Neurontin) Correct - Anticonvulsants like gabapentin are often the first line of treatment for nerve pain
  7. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco) Incorrect - Opioids would not be the appropriate medication to treat nerve pain. Which of these clients is likely to receive sublingual morphine?
  8. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program
  9. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery
  10. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia
  11. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision ✔1. A 75-year-old woman in a hospice program Correct - Sublingual morphine is often used in hospice because the patients are unable to swallow, and intravenous access can be painful and not conducive to palliative care.
  12. A 40-year-old man who just had throat surgery Incorrect - Patients who have surgery most likely have an Intravenous line
  13. A 20-year-old woman with trigeminal neuralgia Incorrect - Morphine would not be the first choice for nerve pain
  14. A 60-year-old man who has a painful incision Incorrect - Although Morphine would be an appropriate medications, there is no indication that it should be administered sublingually
  1. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness ✔1. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness Correct - Meningitis is most often cause by an infectious organism, increasing the WBC count. One defining feature is an increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) which presents as a decreased level of consciousness.
  2. A high WBC count and manic activity Incorrect - Meningitis is most often cause by an infectious organism, increasing the WBC count. One defining feature is an increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) which presents as a decreased level of consciousness.
  3. A low WBC count and manic activity Incorrect - Meningitis is most often cause by an infectious organism, increasing the WBC count. One defining feature is an increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) which presents as a decreased level of consciousness.
  4. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness Incorrect - Meningitis is most often cause by an infectious organism, increasing the WBC count. One defining feature is an increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) which presents as a decreased level of consciousness. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
  5. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
  6. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
  7. Check the patient's WBC lab values
  8. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness ✔1. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity Incorrect - Although neck stiffness can be a symptom of Meningitis, it is not used to define meningitis, neither is it a sign of further neurological deterioration.
  9. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms Incorrect - Although this is an important part of the history gathering process, and meningitis is most often caused by a viral or bacterial infection, it is not the priority assessment.
  10. Check the patient's WBC lab values Incorrect - Although WBCs do rise during an infection like Mengingitis, it is not the priority assessment.
  11. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness Correct - Lethargy and drowsiness indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased ICP (Intracranial Pressure), which can be life- threatening.

The nurse is caring for clients in the pediatric unit. A 6-year patient is admitted who has 2nd and 3rd degree burns on his arms. The nurse should assign the new patient to which of the following roommates?

  1. A 4-year old with sickle-cell disease
  2. A 12-year old with chickenpox
  3. A 6-year old undergoing chemotherapy
  4. A 7-year old with a high temperature ✔1. A 4-year old with sickle-cell disease Correct - The nurse should be concerned about the burn patient's vulnerability to infection. Sickle cell disease is not a communicable disease.
  5. A 12-year old with chickenpox Incorrect - Chickenpox is a communicable disease
  6. A 6-year old undergoing chemotherapy Incorrect - This patient is already immunosuppressed and should not have a roommate regardless.
  7. A 7-year old with a high temperature Incorrect - An unspecified fever is often indicative of an infection of some type. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?
  8. Check the patient's last BUN
  9. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
  10. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
  11. Notify the physician of this finding ✔1. Check the patient's last BUN Incorrect - This may be relevant to nephrotoxicity and poor urine output, but is not the priority action. An assessment finding has already been done and indicates an immediate intervention.
  12. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake Incorrect - Increasing oral intake without other interventions will increase risk of increased ICP and fluid overload.
  13. Ask the physician to order a diuretic Incorrect - This is premature and would not be the correct intervention.
  14. Notify the physician of this finding Correct - Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would cause a decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect and should be reported to the physician.
  1. Slurred speech
  2. Sudden dizziness
  3. Masklike facial expression
  4. Stooped Posture ✔1. Slurred speech Incorrect - Slurred speech is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
  5. Sudden dizziness Correct - Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of this drug that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole's drug class is a dopamine agonist, which mimic dopamine in the brain (PD is characterized by a lack of dopamine).
  6. Masklike facial expression Incorrect - Masklike facial expression is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug.
  7. Stooped Posture Incorrect - Stooped Posture is a common symptom of PD, not a side effect of this drug. The nurse is taking the health history of a patient being treated for Parkinson's Disease. After being told the patient has classic symptoms of Parkinson's, the nurse expects to note which assessment finding?
  8. Tremors
  9. Low Urine Output
  10. Exaggerated arm movements
  11. Risk for Falls ✔1. Tremors Correct - Tremors is one of four cardinal signs of PD: the other three are rigidity, bradykinesia (slow movements), and postural instability
  12. Low Urine Output Incorrect - This is not a relevant symptom to PD
  13. Exaggerated arm movements Incorrect - A symptom of PD would be rigidity and slow arm movements, rather than exaggeration of arm movements
  14. Risk for Falls Incorrect - This is not an assessment finding. This is a nursing diagnosis. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds them unconscious with a rhythmic jerking of all four extremities. The patient is foaming heavily at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions and the bedrails are up and padded. What is the nurse's priority action?
  1. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
  2. Turn the patient to his/her side
  3. Call the physician
  4. Suction the patient ✔1. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan) Incorrect - If a seizure lasts more than 5 minutes, it is called Status epilepticus and can be life-threatening. Physicians will often order anxiolytics or sedatives to treat this condition. However, at this point it would not be appropriate for the nurse to administer this drug.
  5. Turn the patient to his/her side Correct - Turning the patient to the side will keep the airway open, which is the first priority
  6. Call the physician Incorrect - This would be a priority action after ensuring the patient's safety, or in the case of Status epilepticus
  7. Suction the patient Incorrect - This intervention is warranted, but after an assessment of the patient's airway, since forcing a suction catheter into a patient's mouth is a last resort. A nurse is giving a discharge education to a patient who has been diagnosed with epilepsy. Which of these teachings would she stress the most?
  8. Avoid doing alcohol and drugs
  9. Follow up with the neurologist, physician, or other health care provider as prescribed
  10. Do not stop taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have stopped
  11. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy ✔1. Avoid doing alcohol and drugs Incorrect - Although this is a general teaching that would be applied to any hospital discharge situation, it is not the priority to be stressed.
  12. Follow up with the neurologist, physician, or other health care provider as prescribed Incorrect - Although this is correct to include in discharge education, following this instruction is not directly contributing to their safety, so is not the priority.
  13. Do not stop taking anticonvulsants, even if seizures have stopped Correct - Following this instruction is essential for their safety, since stopping anti- epileptic drugs suddenly can cause seizures and an increased chance of status epilecticus
  14. Wear a medical alert bracelet or carry an ID card indicating epilepsy Incorrect - Although this is correct to include in discharge education, following this instruction is not directly contributing to their safety, so is not the priority.
  1. Facilitate tissue perfusion to the spinal cord while maintaining airway and breathing Correct - Maintaining airway, breathing, and circulation is both essential and guides the overall plan of care for a patient with a spinal cord injury. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
  2. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
  3. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques
  4. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
  5. A stabilization of mood and sleep ✔1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements Incorrect - While muscle spasticity and involuntary movements can be symptoms of MS, a corticosteroid infusion is not meant to directly treat these symptoms.
  6. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques Incorrect - Special drugs like Interferon Beta, Natalizumab, or Glatiramir acetate are used as first-line treatments to slow the progression of MS. While corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with these drugs on a long-term basis, they would not be infused. They would be taken orally.
  7. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute exacerbation and is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.
  8. A stabilization of mood and sleep Incorrect - Some of the frequent side effects of a Methylprednisolone infusion are anxiety, insomnia, and mood swings. A nurse knows that which of these patients are at greatest risk for a stroke?
  9. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past.
  10. A 75-year old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic.
  11. A 40-year old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
  12. A 65-year old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease and smokes cigarettes. ✔1. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past. Correct - Common risk factors for developing stroke include: Atrial fibrillation, arteriosclerosis, previous stroke or ischemic attack, heart surgery, valvular heart

disease, diabetes, smoking, substance abuse,obesity, sedentary lifestyle, oral contraceptive use, genetic tendency, migraines, older age, male, African American/Hispanic/American Indian, Sickle Cell Anemia, and brain trauma. This man has the greatest risk based on these risk factors.

  1. A 75-year old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic. Incorrect - See Common Risk Factors for Developing a Stroke.
  2. A 40-year old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives Incorrect - See Common Risk Factors for Developing a Stroke.
  3. A 65-year old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease and smokes cigarettes. Incorrect - See Common Risk Factors for Developing a Stroke. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?
  4. INR is 3 seconds long
  5. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
  6. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg
  7. Blood pressure is 140/ ✔1. INR is 3 seconds long Incorrect - This is actually within a therapeutic range for clotting times for patients with coagulation risks. A normal INR is .9-1.2 seconds, while a therapeutic INR can be as high as 3.5 seconds.
  8. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute Incorrect - While tachycardia is a concern, general tachycardia without other associated symptoms would not pose an immediate danger, and is not of greater priority than the next answer.
  9. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg Correct - The patient is at greatest risk for an increased ICP resulting from edema 72 hours after a stroke. A target ICP should be less than or equal to 15-20 mm/Hg
  10. Blood pressure is 140/ Incorrect - Blood pressure is often kept higher than usual following a stroke to maintain perfusion. Systolic BP higher than 180, or diastolic BP higher than 105, would be the upper limit and required intervention. 140/80 would not pose an immediate danger to the patient's health. A nurse is caring for a patient scheduled to have cataract surgery. The patient asks why they developed cataracts and how they can prevent it from happening again. What is the nurse's best response?
  11. "Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts."
  12. "Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts"