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In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical professional? Select one: a. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis c. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy d. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension
- ANSWER When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension What is something an in-home personal trainer should take into consideration on a day-to-day basis when compared to other types of personal training employment? Select one: a. Travel times between client locations b. Meeting sales quotas for a health club c. Adhering to a gym's dress code d. Writing meal plans for clients – ANSWER Travel times between client locations What are "profit centers" in a commercial fitness facility? Select one:
a. Personal training services b. Memberships c. One large centeral location d. Group fitness classes
- ANSWER Personal training services For how long should a certified personal trainer maintain accurate contract and appointment records? Select one: a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 1 year d. 4 years - ANSWER 4 years What is the product a personal trainer must ultimately deliver to a client? Select one: a. The education the personal trainer provides b. The motivation that the personal trainer provides c. The time spent with the personal trainer d. The result that is trying to be achieved - ANSWER The result that is trying to be achieved When engaging in active listening, a personal trainer should do which of the following? Select one: a. Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking. b. Think about a sales strategy as the client describes their goals. c. Keep track of time by looking at a clock.
- ANSWER Nutritional counseling does not fall within Peter's scope of practice. How long does a personal trainer have to make a good first impression? Select one: a. 20 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 5 minutes d. 2 minutes - ANSWER 20 seconds Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful? Select one: a. Provided uniforms b. Schedule flexibility c. Updated equipment is provided d. Robust group fitness schedules - ANSWER Updated equipment is provided What should a fitness professional avoid while communicating with a client? Select one: a. Giving feedback immediately upon noting errors b. Reflecting the meaning of what was just heard c. Using negative communication d. Asking open-ended questions - ANSWER Using negative communication According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?
Select one: a. Preparation b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Action
- ANSWER Maintenance What stage is a client in when they have no desire to change? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Action c. Preparation d. Precontemplation - ANSWER Precontemplation client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model? Select one: a. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. b. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good. c. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin. d. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise. - ANSWER Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. Which of the following is the best example of a closed question? Select one:
d. Family
- ANSWER Parental Which term refers to a position on or toward the back of the body? Select one: a. Posterior b. Lateral c. Anterior d. Ipsilateral - ANSWER Posterior Which of the following physiological characteristics should a personal trainer be aware of when working with a senior client? Select one: a. Decreased lean body mass b. Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis c. Increased connective tissue elasticity d. Decreased blood pressure - ANSWER Decreased lean body mass How does metabolism behave during EPOC? Select one: a. Remains elevated b. Increases c. Remains unaffected d. Fluctuates - ANSWER Remains elevated What is the gastrocnemius responsible for eccentrically decelerating? Select one: a. Hip extension
b. Dorsiflexion c. Hip flexion d. Plantarflexion - ANSWER Dorsiflexion What refers to a position away from the center of the body or the point of reference? Select one: a. Contralateral b. Ipsilateral c. Distal d. Inferior - ANSWER Distal Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following? Select one: a. Hip fractures in older women b. Alzheimer's disease in the elderly c. Lung cancer in smokers d. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy - ANSWER Lung cancer in smokers Which of the following is true of type I, or slow-twitch, muscle fibers? Select one: a. They are faster than type II muscle fibers to produce maximal tension. b. They have a low oxidative capacity and fatigue quickly. c. They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers. d. They are larger in size than type II muscle fibers and are referred to as white fibers. - ANSWER They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers.
b. Exciting the muscle spindle c. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons d. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons - ANSWER Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Arthrokinetic dysfunction b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Pattern overload - ANSWER Synergistic dominance Which movements is the gluteus maximus responsible for? Select one: a. Concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation b. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation c. Concentrically accelerating hip adduction and medial rotation d. Concentrically accelerating hip supination and lateral rotation - ANSWER Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation What is a life-sustaining fluid that supplies the body's organs and cells with oxygen and nutrients and helps regulate body temperature, fight infections, and remove waste products? Select one: a. Bile b. Exudate c. Blood d. Rheum - ANSWER Blood
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; what is this an example of? Select one: a. Relative flexibility b. Autogenic inhibition c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance - ANSWER Altered reciprocal inhibition What refers to a position on the same side of the body? Select one: a. Proximal b. Ipsilateral c. Anterior d. Medial - ANSWER Ipsilateral What term refers to the movement of the arm or thigh in the transverse plane from a lateral position to an anterior position when the joint is in an anteriorly flexed position? Select one: a. Eversion b. Horizontal abduction c. Horizontal adduction d. Circumduction - ANSWER Horizontal adduction Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion? Select one: a. Semitendinosis
Which of the following is considered subjective information? Select one: a. Circumference measurements b. Overhead squat assessment c. Lifestyle questions d. Taking radial pulse - ANSWER Lifestyle questions What is the term for the client's pulse found on their wrist? Select one: a. Carotid pulse b. Radial pulse c. Brachial pulse d. Popliteal pulse - ANSWER Radial pulse During the pushing assessment, the client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate? Select one: a. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise b. Ball wall squats c. Chin tuck d. Ball cobra - ANSWER Ball cobra Ruby performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following movement compensations indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch? Select one: a. The client's heels rise.
b. The client's arms fall forward. c. The client's low back rounds. d. The client's knees move inward. - ANSWER The client's knees move inward. Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following? Select one: a. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts b. The larger of the two numbers c. The top number in the blood pressure reading d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood - ANSWER Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment? Select one: a. Heart rate test b. Static posture assessment c. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire d. Blood pressure test - ANSWER Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? Select one: a. Lower crossed syndrome b. Upper crossed syndrome c. Lower extremity movement syndrome d. Pronation distortion syndrome - ANSWER Pronation distortion syndrome
b. A client's muscle mass c. A client's lean body mass d. Whether a client's fat mass is within his or her percent fat recommendations - ANSWER Whether a client's weight is appropriate for his or her height Which of the following is one of the sites of skinfold measurement according to the Durnin formula to calculate a person's percentage of body fat? Select one: a. Waist b. Chest c. Calves d. Triceps - ANSWER Triceps Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Anterior tilt to the pelvis b. Flat feet and adducted knees c. Outwardly rotated knees d. Forward head and rounded shoulders - ANSWER Forward head and rounded shoulders A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the "good" category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train? Select one: a. 0. b. 0. c. 0. d. 0.75 - ANSWER 0.
What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test? Select one: a. Heart rate b. Body fat c. Height d. Weight - ANSWER Weight During a single-leg squat assessment, the client's standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Tensor fascia latae c. Gluteus medius d. Vastus lateralis - ANSWER Gluteus medius Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client? Select one: a. Divide the client's resting heart rate by 220. b. Divide 220 by the client's age. c. Subtract the client's age from 220. d. Add the client's resting heart rate from 220. - ANSWER Subtract the client's age from 220. While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that his head protrudes forward. Which of the following groups of muscles are probably overactive? Select one: a. Middle trapezius b. Erector spinae
Select one: a. Moderate repetition tempo b. Slow repetition tempo c. Explosive repetition tempo d. Fast, yet controlled, repetition tempo - ANSWER Slow repetition tempo A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent? Select one: a. Pyramid b. Peripheral heart action c. Drop-set d. Vertical loading - ANSWER Vertical loading A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman's aerobic energy system? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Mechanical specificity d. Metabolic specificity - ANSWER Metabolic specificity When training a youth client, which of the following factors will determine when you can progress to the next phase of training? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy
b. Postural control c. Agility and quickness d. Amount of weight that can be used - ANSWER Postural control In the Strength Endurance Phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Push-up followed by bench press b. Bench press followed by a ball push-up c. Push-up followed by a seated cable row d. Bench press followed by a soccer throw - ANSWER Bench press followed by a ball push-up What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition? Select one: a. Active stretching b. Static stretching c. Ballistic stretching d. Elastic stretching - ANSWER Active stretching Which of the following program design concepts divides the program into smaller, progressive stages that focus on specific adaptations? Select one: a. Undulated periodization b. Periodization c. Tabulation d. Linear summation - ANSWER Periodization
