Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

NASM Final Exam NEW VERSION LATEST UPDATE 2025-2026 WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS GUARANTEED PAS, Exams of Sport Studies

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Legal and ethical d. Professionalism - ANSWER Confidentiality Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Steady-state aerobic training b. Proprioceptive training c. High-impact activity d. Low-impact activity - ANSWER Low-impact activity Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may redu

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/03/2025

sammy-blazer
sammy-blazer 🇺🇸

1

(1)

603 documents

1 / 29

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
NASM Final Exam NEW VERSION LATEST
UPDATE 2025-2026 WITH ACCURATE
ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS BEST
STUDYING MATERIAL
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are
disposed of in a secure manner?
Select one:
a. Business practice
b. Confidentiality
c. Legal and ethical
d. Professionalism
- ANSWER Confidentiality
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?
Select one:
a. Steady-state aerobic training
b. Proprioceptive training
c. High-impact activity
d. Low-impact activity
- ANSWER Low-impact activity
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she
presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Select one:
a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing
increased stress on the low-back.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d

Partial preview of the text

Download NASM Final Exam NEW VERSION LATEST UPDATE 2025-2026 WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS GUARANTEED PAS and more Exams Sport Studies in PDF only on Docsity!

NASM Final Exam NEW VERSION LATEST

UPDATE 2025-2026 WITH ACCURATE

ANSWERS GUARANTEED PASS BEST

STUDYING MATERIAL

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Legal and ethical d. Professionalism

  • ANSWER Confidentiality Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Steady-state aerobic training b. Proprioceptive training c. High-impact activity d. Low-impact activity
  • ANSWER Low-impact activity Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.

  • ANSWER Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure c. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
  • ANSWER Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback? Select one: a. Knowledge of performance b. Knowledge of results c. Proprioception d. Motivation
  • ANSWER Proprioception Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle? Select one:

b. Vitamin C c. B vitamins d. Fat-soluble vitamins

  • ANSWER B vitamins Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods b. Ability to stretch in small increments c. Ability to stretch only one muscle d. Altered movement patterns
  • ANSWER Altered movement patterns Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. c. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training. d. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism
  • ANSWER They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Stability ball abdominal crunches b. Sandbag rotational lunge c. Cable machine single-arm row

d. Kettlebell RDL

  • ANSWER Kettlebell RDL What type of client is ideally suited for stage 2 training around VT1? Select one: a. Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss b. Athletes or competitors who desire to improve speed or power during short but very- highintensity bouts of work c. More serious exercisers seeking to expand the capacity for both aerobic and anaerobic work d. New exercisers seeking to improve health markers like reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes
  • ANSWER Fitness enthusiasts regularly engaging in physical activity or those seeking further improvements in cardiovascular endurance or weight loss When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Select one: a. A collecting summary b. Change talk c. An affirmation d. Sustain talk
  • ANSWER Sustain talk When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions? Select one: a. Glycogen b. Amino acids

d. Stage 3

  • ANSWER Stage 2 What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Peripheral resistance b. Venous pooling c. Valsalva maneuver d. Frank Starling Law of the Hear t
  • ANSWER Frank Starling Law of the Heart What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change b. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening c. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse d. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion - ANSWER Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Action planning b. Self-monitoring c. Coping planning d. Goal setting - ANSWER Self-monitoring

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased stroke volume d. Increased end-systolic volume - ANSWER Increased heart rate If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The electron transport chain b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system - ANSWER Glycolysis Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Normal b. Stage 2 hypertension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Elevated - ANSWER Elevated Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Hip flexors

b. Lack of social support c. Ambivalence d. Unrealistic goals - ANSWER Social physique anxiety According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 6 months b. 4 years c. Indefinitely d. 1 year - ANSWER 4 years If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 5 - ANSWER Phase 5 Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Stability b. Power c. Strength d. Endurance - ANSWER Stability

Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Positive outcome expectation b. Autonomy c. Motivation d. Self-efficacy - ANSWER Motivation What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The Z-lines moving farther apart c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction d. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere - ANSWER The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills b. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5- 10 - 5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 - ANSWER 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills Circuit training is best described as what?

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Individuals with performance goals b. Individuals recovering from an injury c. Deconditioned individuals d. Elderly individuals - ANSWER Individuals with performance goals Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Stable balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance - ANSWER Semi-dynamic balance What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Ketosis c. Glycolysis d. Beta-oxidation - ANSWER Beta-oxidation Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is rhythmic. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is intense. - ANSWER The exercise is intense

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Glycolysis - ANSWER Gluconeogenesis What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Select one: a. Increased oxygen delivery b. Smaller in size c. Slow to fatigue d. Short-term contractions - ANSWER Short-term contractions Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Agonist b. Synergist c. Antagonist d. Stabilizer - ANSWER Synergist How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat? Select one: a. About 1, b. About 500

Select one: a. Standing overhead press b. Davies test c. Standing push assessment d. Standing pull assessment - ANSWER Standing push assessment What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance - ANSWER Autogenic inhibition What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest b. VO2max x % intensity desired c. 208 - (0.7 x age) d. HRmax x % intensity desired - ANSWER 208 - (0.7 x age) Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Pulmonary veins - ANSWER Left atrium

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Glucose b. Fat c. Ketone bodies d. Protein - ANSWER Glucose Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle - ANSWER Having more mitochondria in their muscle A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors b. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals c. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius d. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius - ANSWER Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Initiative

Select one: a. 3 or 4 sessions per week b. 1 or 2 sessions per week c. 0 sessions per week d. 5 to 7 sessions per week - ANSWER 1 or 2 sessions per week Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Power b. Flexibility c. Muscular strength d. Aerobic fitness - ANSWER Power What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization of the LPHC b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life c. Use of heavy weights d. Slow and controlled movements - ANSWER A faster tempo, similar to daily life What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Select one: a. Macrocycle b. Mesocycle c. Microcycle d. Megacycle - ANSWER Macrocycle

A progression for the _____ exercise may be to perform the exercise standing. - ANSWER kneeling medicine ball chest pass The muscles of the movement system are primarily responsible for: - ANSWER concentric force production and eccentric deceleration during dynamic activities. Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise? - ANSWER Two-leg floor bridge In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional? - ANSWER When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase? - ANSWER Proprioception When performing a _____, the resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction. - ANSWER standing cable chest press Identify a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise. - ANSWER Do not swing the legs when performing the exercise. When an individual performs power exercises, it is important to make sure that he or she: - ANSWER has good balance, body control, and spatial awareness What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? - ANSWER Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press