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Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Legal and ethical d. Professionalism - ANSWER Confidentiality Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Steady-state aerobic training b. Proprioceptive training c. High-impact activity d. Low-impact activity - ANSWER Low-impact activity Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may redu
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Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Business practice b. Confidentiality c. Legal and ethical d. Professionalism
b. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. c. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
b. Vitamin C c. B vitamins d. Fat-soluble vitamins
d. Kettlebell RDL
d. Stage 3
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased heart rate c. Decreased stroke volume d. Increased end-systolic volume - ANSWER Increased heart rate If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The electron transport chain b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system - ANSWER Glycolysis Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Normal b. Stage 2 hypertension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Elevated - ANSWER Elevated Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Hip flexors
b. Lack of social support c. Ambivalence d. Unrealistic goals - ANSWER Social physique anxiety According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 6 months b. 4 years c. Indefinitely d. 1 year - ANSWER 4 years If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 5 - ANSWER Phase 5 Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Stability b. Power c. Strength d. Endurance - ANSWER Stability
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking? Select one: a. Positive outcome expectation b. Autonomy c. Motivation d. Self-efficacy - ANSWER Motivation What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The Z-lines moving farther apart c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction d. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere - ANSWER The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills b. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5- 10 - 5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 - ANSWER 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills Circuit training is best described as what?
What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for? Select one: a. Individuals with performance goals b. Individuals recovering from an injury c. Deconditioned individuals d. Elderly individuals - ANSWER Individuals with performance goals Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Stable balance c. Semi-dynamic balance d. Static balance - ANSWER Semi-dynamic balance What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Acidosis b. Ketosis c. Glycolysis d. Beta-oxidation - ANSWER Beta-oxidation Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is rhythmic. c. The exercise is continuous in nature. d. The exercise is intense. - ANSWER The exercise is intense
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Glycolysis - ANSWER Gluconeogenesis What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber? Select one: a. Increased oxygen delivery b. Smaller in size c. Slow to fatigue d. Short-term contractions - ANSWER Short-term contractions Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Agonist b. Synergist c. Antagonist d. Stabilizer - ANSWER Synergist How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat? Select one: a. About 1, b. About 500
Select one: a. Standing overhead press b. Davies test c. Standing push assessment d. Standing pull assessment - ANSWER Standing push assessment What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance - ANSWER Autogenic inhibition What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual's maximal heart rate? Select one: a. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest b. VO2max x % intensity desired c. 208 - (0.7 x age) d. HRmax x % intensity desired - ANSWER 208 - (0.7 x age) Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Pulmonary veins - ANSWER Left atrium
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Glucose b. Fat c. Ketone bodies d. Protein - ANSWER Glucose Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle b. Having more fat stored on their body c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle - ANSWER Having more mitochondria in their muscle A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors b. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals c. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius d. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius - ANSWER Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Initiative
Select one: a. 3 or 4 sessions per week b. 1 or 2 sessions per week c. 0 sessions per week d. 5 to 7 sessions per week - ANSWER 1 or 2 sessions per week Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Power b. Flexibility c. Muscular strength d. Aerobic fitness - ANSWER Power What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization of the LPHC b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life c. Use of heavy weights d. Slow and controlled movements - ANSWER A faster tempo, similar to daily life What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming? Select one: a. Macrocycle b. Mesocycle c. Microcycle d. Megacycle - ANSWER Macrocycle
A progression for the _____ exercise may be to perform the exercise standing. - ANSWER kneeling medicine ball chest pass The muscles of the movement system are primarily responsible for: - ANSWER concentric force production and eccentric deceleration during dynamic activities. Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise? - ANSWER Two-leg floor bridge In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional? - ANSWER When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase? - ANSWER Proprioception When performing a _____, the resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction. - ANSWER standing cable chest press Identify a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise. - ANSWER Do not swing the legs when performing the exercise. When an individual performs power exercises, it is important to make sure that he or she: - ANSWER has good balance, body control, and spatial awareness What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? - ANSWER Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press