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NASM FINAL EXAM ACCURATE TESTED
VERSIONS OF THE EXAM FROM 2025 TO 2026 |
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A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This is an example of which section of the Stages of Change model? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Action c. Preparation d. Maintenance
- ANSWER Preparation A personal trainer provides his client with step-by-step instructions on how to perform a ball squat to shoulder press and later asks the client if she was able to perform the exercise. This is an example of what type of support? Select one: a. Instrumental b. Emotional c. Informational d. Companionship
- ANSWER Informational
Which of the following exemplifies professional service and client care according to the Code of Professional Conduct? Select one: a. Instructing a client to take weight-loss nutritional supplements b. Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist c. Designing meal plans for a client who has diabetes d. Providing rehabilitation services to a client after a knee surgery Check - ANSWER Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist A 70-year-old client goes to see a personal trainer to regain cardiovascular fitness after a recent heart attack. The trainer has not received written clearance from the client's doctor prior to the first training session, but the client has already completed 10 training sessions with a different trainer. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take? Select one: a. Obtain permission from the personal training manager to continue training. b. Monitor the client's blood pressure before every workout session. c. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. d. Have the client sign an additional liability waiver.
- ANSWER Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor. Which of the following is outside of the personal trainer's scope of practice, according the Code of Professional Conduct? Select one: a. Independently design training programs to correct muscle imbalances b. Provide flexibility training techniques to assist clients with medical clearance in adapting to past surgeries that limit their physical movement
Select one: a. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. b. Compare the client's body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin. c. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good. d. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.
- ANSWER Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise. Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer's scope of practice? Select one: a. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise. b. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances. c. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements. d. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.
- ANSWER Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet. Which of the following requirements is necessary for a personal trainer to recertify his NASMCPT certification? Select one: a. Submit an online CPR and first aid certification. b. Acquire 20 hr of hands-on work experience. c. Earn 2 continuing education units. d. Complete a 10-hr internship or apprenticeship. Check - ANSWER Earn 2 continuing education units.
Which of the following terms refers to a neurotransmitter that carries action potential across a synapse? Select one: a. Acetylcholine b. Myoglobin c. Mitochondria d. Troponin Check
- ANSWER Acetylcholine Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? Select one: a. "Does this exercise hurt?" b. "Are you ready to get started today?" c. "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" d. "Are you feeling okay?" Check
- ANSWER "Why do you want to lose 20 pounds?" Which of the following falls within a personal trainer's scope of practice regarding nutrition? Select one: a. Provide a client with a detailed individual nutrition assessment. b. Write individualized meal plans for a client.
c. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education each year. d. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education every 2 years. Check - ANSWER Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years. Which of the following muscles is a synergist during the seated cable row exercise? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major c. Biceps brachii d. Rotator cuff
- ANSWER Biceps brachii The autonomic nervous system contains which of the following subdivisions? Select one: a. Sympathetic b. Somatic c. Peripheral d. Central
- ANSWER Sympathetic Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance c. Davis's law d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
- ANSWER Synergistic dominance According to the sliding filament theory, muscular contraction occurs when Select one: a. actin and myosin filaments slide away from each other. b. myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin. c. the distance from Z line to Z line is increased. d. myofibrils are lengthened. - ANSWER myosin cross bridge power strokes the actin filament across the myosin. During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts? Select one: a. Force-couple relationships b. Synergistic dominance c. Length-tension relationships d. Arthrokinematic dysfunction - ANSWER Synergistic dominance Which of the following tests should a trainer use in his cardiorespiratory assessment to determine in which heart rate training zone the training should begin?
Which of the following methods uses a percentage of a client's estimated maximal heart rate to calculate target heart rate? Select one: a. Peak VO b. Peak maximal heart rate c. Heart rate reserve d. VO2 reserve
- ANSWER Peak maximal heart rate Which of the following is the best example of an exercise that predominately uses the ATP-PC pathway for energy? Select one: a. A set of three barbell cleans b. A 10-exercise circuit training workout c. 20 - repetition body squats exercise d. 30 minutes of walking on a treadmill
- ANSWER A set of three barbell cleans If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Anterior tibialis c. Hamstring complex d. Posterior tibialis –
ANSWER Hip flexor complex Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations? Select one: a. Shark skill test, anterior view b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view c. Pushing assessment, lateral view d. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view Check - ANSWER Pushing assessment, lateral view Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body? Select one: a. Push-up b. Pushing c. Pulling d. Bench press - ANSWER Push-up The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following? Select one: a. VO2 reserve b. Estimated oxygen consumption c. Metabolic equivalent (MET) d. Heart rate reserve (HRR - ANSWER Estimated oxygen consumption
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rectus abdominis c. Biceps femoris d. Gluteus maximus - ANSWER Latissimus dorsi During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive? Select one: a. Adductor brevis b. Gluteus medius c. Biceps femoris d. Vastus lateralis - ANSWER Gluteus medius A personal trainer is working with a client who regularly wears high heels. The trainer should expect to see overactivity or tightness in which of the following tissues? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon b. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon c. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon d. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon - ANSWER Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon
Front lunges and biceps curls occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal b. Scapular c. Transverse d. Sagittal - ANSWER Sagittal Which of the following static stretches is most appropriate if a client's feet turn outward during the overhead squat test? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius stretch b. Scalene stretch c. Erector spinae stretch d. Sternocleidomastoid stretch - ANSWER Gastrocnemius stretch When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major? Select one: a. Single leg throw and catch b. Medicine ball rotation chest pass c. Floor push-ups d. Ball dumbbell chest press - ANSWER Medicine ball rotation chest pass
A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining? Select one: a. 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise b. 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise c. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise d. 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise - ANSWER 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction of the hamstrings c. Synergistic dominance of the quadriceps d. Relative flexibility of the quadriceps - ANSWER Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg balance and reach on Airex pad b. Multiplanar step-up to balance c. Single-leg lift and chop
d. Single-leg hop-up with stabilization - ANSWER Multiplanar step-up to balance A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Self-myofascial release c. Active-isolated stretching d. Dynamic stretching Check - ANSWER Self-myofascial release When performing a single-leg squat exercise, a client is unable to keep the knee of the balance leg in line with the toes. Which of the following exercises is an appropriate modification? Select one: a. Single-leg balance reach b. Multiplanar lunge to balance c. Box hop-up with stabilization d. Single-leg squat touchdown - ANSWER Single-leg balance reach The carpals of the hand are which of the following types of bones? Select one: a. Long b. Short c. Flat
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions? Select one: a. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion c. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation d. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation - ANSWER Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles? Select one: a. Psoas b. Tensor fascia latae c. Pectineus d. Adductor brevis - ANSWER Psoas A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following systems is the client primarily using to produce energy? Select one: a. Oxidative b. Anaerobic glycolysis c. ATP-PC d. Lymphatic - ANSWER Oxidative
A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive? Select one: a. Psoas b. Erector spinae c. Transverse abdominis d. Latissimus dorsi - ANSWER Transverse abdominis A client is taking prescription beta blockers. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform? Select one: a. Knee-up b. Standing cobra c. Reverse crunch d. Floor bridge - ANSWER Standing cobra During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client's knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching? Select one: a. Vastus lateralis b. Gluteus medius c. Vastus medialis oblique d. Gluteus maximus - ANSWER Vastus lateralis
