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NASM CPT Final Exam QUESTIONS
ACCURATE AND VERIFIED ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS FOR
GUARANTEED PASS | ALREADY GRADED A
1. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles when the feet turn out? A. Tibialis anterior and vastus medialis B. Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and biceps femoris (short head) ✅ C. Gluteus maximus and adductor magnus D. Medial gastrocnemius and semitendinosus Rationale: These muscles are typically tight or overactive and cause external rotation of the feet. 2. During an Overhead Squat assessment, what are the probable underactive muscles if a client's feet turn out? A. Soleus and hamstring complex B. Rectus femoris and iliopsoas C. Medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus ✅ D. Piriformis and gluteus medius Rationale: These muscles are often weak, leading to poor foot alignment during movement. 3. What are the probable overactive muscles when the knees move inward during an Overhead Squat? A. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings B. Adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), TFL, vastus lateralis ✅ C. Iliacus and quadratus lumborum D. Vastus medialis oblique and sartorius Rationale: These muscles pull the knees inward due to overactivity. 4. What are the probable underactive muscles when the knees move inward? A. Adductors and hip flexors B. Soleus and rectus femoris C. Gluteus medius/maximus, vastus medialis oblique (VMO) ✅ D. Iliotibial band and hamstrings Rationale: Weak gluteals and VMO fail to stabilize the knee laterally.
5. What are the probable overactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean in the Overhead Squat? A. Gluteus maximus and biceps femoris B. Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex ✅ C. Tibialis anterior and obliques D. Erector spinae and hamstrings Rationale: These muscles pull the torso forward when overactive. 6. What are the probable underactive muscles when there is an excessive forward lean? A. Gluteus maximus, erector spinae, anterior tibialis ✅ B. Latissimus dorsi and TFL C. Adductors and rectus femoris D. Soleus and gastrocnemius Rationale: These muscles should activate to keep the torso upright. 7. What are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches during the squat? A. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings B. Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi ✅ C. Transverse abdominis and obliques D. TFL and quadratus lumborum Rationale: These muscles cause anterior pelvic tilt and lumbar extension. 8. What are the probable underactive muscles when the low back arches? A. Psoas major and gluteus minimus B. Gluteus maximus, hamstring complex, intrinsic core stabilizers ✅ C. Rectus abdominis and vastus lateralis D. TFL and soleus Rationale: These stabilize the pelvis and prevent lumbar hyperextension. 9. What are the probable overactive muscles when the arms fall forward during the squat? A. Rhomboids and rotator cuff B. Latissimus dorsi, teres major, pectoralis major/minor ✅ C. Lower trapezius and biceps D. Serratus anterior and triceps Rationale: These pull the arms downward when tight. 10. What are the probable underactive muscles when the arms fall forward? A. Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid
D. Upper trapezius Rationale: Weak core muscles fail to stabilize the lumbar spine.
16. What are the probable overactive muscles when the shoulder elevates and/or head migrates forward? A. Sternocleidomastoid, levator scapulae, upper trapezius ✅ B. Middle trapezius and rhomboids C. Pectoralis minor and deltoids D. Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis Rationale: These tight muscles pull the shoulder girdle and neck improperly. 17. What are the probable underactive muscles when the shoulder elevates? A. Upper trapezius B. Middle/lower trapezius ✅ C. Pectoralis major D. Anterior deltoid Rationale: These muscles stabilize the scapula downward and posteriorly. 18. What are the probable underactive muscles when the head protrudes forward? A. Levator scapulae B. Upper trapezius C. Deep cervical flexors ✅ D. Rhomboids Rationale: These muscles stabilize head posture and resist forward head movement. 19. What assessment evaluates lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? A. Rockport Walk Test B. Shark Skill Test ✅ C. Overhead Squat D. YMCA Step Test Rationale: The Shark Skill Test measures single-leg balance and agility. 20. What occupational clue suggests prolonged plantar flexion of the ankle complex? A. Wearing athletic shoes B. Wearing dress shoes (high heels) ✅ C. Working barefoot D. Sitting at a desk Rationale: High heels hold the ankle in constant plantar flexion.
21. Which class of medication reduces heart rate and blood pressure? A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta-blockers ✅ C. Diuretics D. Statins Rationale: Beta-blockers blunt the sympathetic nervous system. 22. For which conditions are beta-blockers commonly prescribed? A. High blood pressure and arrhythmias ✅ B. Diabetes and asthma C. Obesity and cholesterol D. Depression and anxiety Rationale: They are used to manage cardiovascular conditions. 23. When should a client take their resting heart rate? A. After a workout B. Midday C. Before sleeping D. Upon waking in the morning ✅ Rationale: This provides the most accurate baseline reading. 24. Two common tests to assess cardiorespiratory efficiency include: A. Skinfold and underwater weighing B. Rockport Walk Test and YMCA 3-Min Step Test ✅ C. Sit-and-reach and push-up test D. Bench press and 1RM test Rationale: These are simple submaximal aerobic assessments. 25. What are three common methods to assess body fat percentage? A. BMI, waist circumference, hip ratio B. Hydrostatic weighing, bioelectrical impedance, skinfold measurements ✅ C. MRI, X-ray, DEXA only D. VO2 max, step test, Rockport Rationale: These are accessible and reliable methods. 26. What BMI range is considered very high risk for disease? A. 30.0–34. B. 25.0–29. C. 35.0–39.99 ✅
32. What muscle action causes shortening of the muscle due to more force exerted than the resistance? A. Eccentric B. Concentric ✅ C. Isometric D. Passive Rationale: Concentric action shortens muscle fibers during movement. 33. What plane divides the body into right and left halves? A. Frontal B. Sagittal ✅ C. Transverse D. Coronal Rationale: The sagittal plane cuts the body vertically into left and right. 34. What movement occurs side-to-side, as if between two walls? A. Transverse B. Sagittal C. Frontal ✅ D. Oblique Rationale: Frontal plane movements occur laterally. 35. What is the energy storage molecule within body cells? A. Glycogen B. Glucose C. ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) ✅ D. NADH Rationale: ATP is the body’s primary energy currency. 36. What is the starting zone of cardio training for a client scoring “poor” on the YMCA Step Test? A. Zone 3 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 1 ✅ D. Recovery zone Rationale: Zone 1 builds a cardio base for low fitness clients. 37. What is the starting zone for a client with “average” YMCA Step Test score? A. Zone 1
B. Zone 2 ✅ C. Zone 3 D. None Rationale: Zone 2 challenges moderate cardio capacity.
38. What can a client’s occupation reveal? A. Political preference B. Movement patterns ✅ C. Body fat levels D. Medication adherence Rationale: Work posture and habits impact movement dysfunction. 39. What movement habits may result from occupational/lifestyle clues? A. Frequent knee pain B. Extended sitting, repetitive movement, dress shoes, stress ✅ C. Hypotension D. Muscle hypertrophy Rationale: These factors affect posture and compensation patterns. 40. What muscles lose neural control after an ankle sprain? A. Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius ✅ B. Tibialis anterior and peroneals C. Hamstrings D. Rectus femoris and iliacus Rationale: Ankle sprains can affect glute activation and stability. 41. Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium ✅ C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle Rationale: The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary veins. 42. What is the straight percentage formula for target heart rate? A. (220 − client’s age) × desired intensity ✅ B. Max HR + resting HR C. (Client’s weight × 10) D. RHR × exercise duration Rationale: This is the basic formula for THR calculation.
C. Zone 3 D. Maximal effort zone Rationale: Zone 2 builds dual energy pathway endurance.
49. Which heart rate zone (86–95%) builds high-end work capacity? A. Zone 1 B. Zone 2 C. Zone 3 ✅ D. Threshold zone Rationale: Zone 3 pushes the upper aerobic/anaerobic limit. What positional guidelines do you give a client who is setting up for an Overhead Squat assessment? - ANSWER Feet shoulder-width apart and pointed straight ahead; foot and ankle complex in a neutral position; arms raised overhead, with elbows fully extended What is the level that a client is instructed to squat to when performing the Overhead Squat assessment? - ANSWER Height of a chair Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the anterior view. - ANSWER Feet turn out and knees move inward Compensations observed during the Overhead Squat assessment from the lateral view. - ANSWER Low back arches, excessive forward lean, arms fall forward Represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts. - ANSWER Systolic blood pressure Represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood. - ANSWER Diastolic blood pressure
The method of measuring body fat percentages that conducts an electrical current through the body to measure fat. - ANSWER Bioelectrical impedance What are the four skin-fold sites tested when using the Durnin-Womersley formula for body fat assessment? - ANSWER Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest What is the waist-to-hip ratio for males and females that puts them at a greater risk for disease?
- ANSWER A ratio greater than 0.95 for males and greater than 0.80 for females Muscles that assist the prime movers. - ANSWER Synergists Risk for disease increases when an overweight person's BMI level is____. - ANSWER 25 or greater Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues. - ANSWER Mechanoreceptors What is the amount of time recovery pulse is taken after completing the YMCA 3- Minute Step Test? - ANSWER Within 5 seconds of completing the exercise, take the client's pulse for 60 seconds Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change. - ANSWER Golgi tendon organs Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change - ANSWER Muscle Spindles On which clients should health and fitness professionals avoid the use of skin-fold calipers to measure body fat? - ANSWER Very overweight clients
The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response. - ANSWER Motor control Repeated practice of motor control processes, which leads to a change in the ability to produce skilled movements. - ANSWER Motor learning When assessing a client during a Single-leg Squat, from which vantage point should you view the client? - ANSWER Anterior Which muscle synergies (muscle groups) are primarily used in a Shoulder Press? - ANSWER Deltoid, rotator cuff, trapezius The name of the receptors surrounding a joint that respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration in the joint. - ANSWER Joint receptors Altered reciprocal inhibition, synergistic dominance, and arthrokinetic dysfunction all lead to this. - ANSWER Muscle imbalance The ability of the neuromuscular system to properly recruit muscles to produce force concentrically, reduce force eccentrically, and isometrically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion. - ANSWER Neuromuscular efficiency A layer of connective tissue that is underneath the fascia, and surrounds the muscle. - ANSWER Epimysium What are the three support mechanisms of blood? - ANSWER Transportation, regulation and protection
The Davies test is contraindicated for which group of people? - ANSWER Individuals lacking shoulder stability What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation? - ANSWER Latissimus dorsi Name three postural distortion patterns that might be seen during a static postural assessment.
- ANSWER Pronation distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, upper crossed syndrome What are the altered joint mechanics associated with pronation distortion syndrome? - ANSWER Increased: Knee adduction and internal rotation, foot pronation and external rotation; Decreased: Ankle dorsiflexion and inversion Name possible injuries associated with pronation distortion syndrome. - ANSWER Plantar fasciitis, shin splints, patellar tendonitis, low back pain What are possible injuries associated with lower crossed syndrome? - ANSWER Hamstring complex strain, anterior knee pain, low back pain Name the altered joint mechanics associated with lower crossed syndrome. - ANSWER Increased lumbar extension and decreased hip extension Name the lengthened muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. - ANSWER Anterior tibialis, posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, transversus abdominis, and internal oblique Name the short muscles associated with lower crossed syndrome. - ANSWER Gastrocnemius, soleus, hip flexor complex, adductors, latissimus dorsi, and erector spinae Name possible injuries associated with upper crossed syndrome. - ANSWER Headaches, bicep tendonitis, rotator cuff impingement, and thoracic outlet syndrome
Amino acids manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen, fragments of carbohydrate, and fat. - ANSWER Nonessential amino acids Name the five stages of change. - ANSWER 1. Precontemplation, 2. Contemplation, 3. Preparation, 4. Action, 5. Maintenance What are four types of support mechanisms to help clients reach their health and fitness goals?
- ANSWER Instrumental support, emotional support, informational support, and companionship support The type of support that deals with the tangible and practical factors necessary to help a person adhere to exercise or achieve exercise goals. - ANSWER Instrumental support Type of support expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern. - ANSWER Emotional support This type of support includes directions, advice, or suggestions given to clients about how to exercise. - ANSWER Informational support This type of support includes the availability of family, friends, and coworkers with whom clients can exercise. - ANSWER Companionship support Type of questions that can be answered with one word. - ANSWER Directive questions Guidelines the health and fitness professional should use when approaching potential clients. - ANSWER Say ''Hello'' to each member; offer towels or water; roam the workout floor; don't hide behind desks, books, or a computer; introduce yourself by name; don't educate on the first interaction What are the amount of CEUs required every two years to retain your credential as a NASM
Certified Personal Trainer? - ANSWER 2. The principles of effective goal setting as reflected by the acronym SMART. - ANSWER Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely What are four questions that may help clients determine their long-term goals? - ANSWER 1. What do I want to accomplish in 6 months? 2. What do I want to accomplish in the next year? 3. What do I want to accomplish in the next 5 years? 4. What is my dream accomplishment? The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. - ANSWER Estimated Average Requirement The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. - ANSWER Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) A recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations or estimates of nutrient intake that are assumed to be adequate for a group or groups of healthy people. Used when an RDA cannot be determined. - ANSWER Adequate Intake The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. As intake increases above this level, the potential risk of adverse health effects increases. - ANSWER Tolerable Upper Intake Level What is one of the greatest contributions made by dietary complex carbohydrates that is also associated with a lower incidence of heart disease and certain types of cancer? - ANSWER Fiber What is the chief source of energy for all body functions and muscular exertions? - ANSWER Carbohydrates
A substance that completes or makes an addition to daily dietary intake. - ANSWER Dietary supplement The process created to produce internalized experiences to support or enhance exercise participation - ANSWER Exercise imagery What are four psychological benefits of exercise? - ANSWER Promotes positive mood, reduces stress, improves sleep, reduces depression and anxiety How many calories are contained in 1 pound of body fat? - ANSWER 3500 What three vitamins can cause serious adverse effects such as birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves. - ANSWER A, D, B Name three diets that are considered very low carbohydrate diets; each contains less than 21% carbohydrates. - ANSWER Atkins diet, Protein Power diet, Ketogenic diet Name two high carbohydrate diets. Both of these have a carbohydrate content of greater than 60%. - ANSWER Dean Ornish diet and the Pritikin diet Name six low carbohydrate diets that each have a carbohydrate content of 21-42%. - ANSWER Zone diet, Carbohydrate Addicts diet, Abs diet, South Beach diet, Sugar Busters diet, Testosterone diet Name three diets that are moderately high in carbohydrates at a 51-60% carbohydrate content.
- ANSWER RDA Food Pyramid diet, Flat Belly diet, Mediterranean diet What are the risks of following an overly restrictive diet? Which is a very low calorie diet? - ANSWER Increased risk of malnutrition; poor energy; behavioral ''pendulum'' swings; minor side effects: fatigue, constipation, nausea, and diarrhea; major side effects: gallstone formation
What is the amount of energy expended while at rest? It typically accounts for 70% of total energy expenditure (TEE). - ANSWER Resting metabolic rate (RMR) What is the amount of energy expended above the RMR as a result of processing food for storage and use? It typically accounts for approximately 6-10% of total energy expenditure (TEE). - ANSWER Thermic effect of food (TEF) Name six guidelines for providing uncompromising customer service. - ANSWER Take every opportunity to meet and greet each member, present a positive image, never give an impression that you are inconvenienced by a client/potential client, express ideas clearly through all forms of communication, take every opportunity to strengthen relationships, take ownership of complaints Name the condition in which delaminated protein is stored as fat. - ANSWER Excess protein intake A food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate ratios. - ANSWER Complete protein A food source low or lacking in one or more of the essential amino acids. - ANSWER Incomplete protein What is the factor when an essential amino acid is missing or present in the smallest amount? - ANSWER Limiting factor What are the 10 nonessential amino acids? - ANSWER Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, tyrosine What are the two semi-essential amino acids? - ANSWER Arginine and histidine
