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NASM Corrective Exercise Specialist
Quiz Questions with Certified Solutions
Which of the following muscles serve to decelerate knee flexion and hip extension?
A) Psoas
B) Tensor fascia latae
C) Gluteus maximus
D) Rectus femoris ✔✔D) Rectus femoris
Which of the following muscles serves to decelerate tibial internal rotation and knee extension?
A) Peroneus longus
B) Semimembranosus
C) Biceps femoris
D) Gastrocnemius ✔✔C) Biceps femoris
Which of the following muscles inserts via the Achilles tendon?
A) Gastrocnemius
B) Anterior tibialis
C) Hamstrings
D) Posterior tibialis ✔✔A) Gastrocnemius
Which global muscle subsystem activates synergistically to control movement in the frontal plane?
A) Posterior oblique
B) Deep longitudinal
C) Anterior oblique
D) Lateral ✔✔D) Lateral
What term defines the cumulative change in motor behavior over a person's entire lifetime?
A) Proprioception
B) Sensory information
C) Motor learning
What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response?
A) Augmented feedback
B) Muscle synergy
C) Sensorimotor integration
D) Knowledge of performance ✔✔C) Sensorimotor integration
During a bench press exercise, which muscle synergy is occurring?
A) Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
B) Activation of the triceps brachii as the agonist with the posterior deltoid and middle trapezius assisting synergistically.
C) Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
D) Activation of biceps brachii as the agonist with pectoralis major and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically. ✔✔C) Activation of the pectoralis major as an agonist with the triceps brachii
and anterior deltoid assisting synergistically.
What term describes a muscle acting as a primary mover?
A) Agonist
B) Antagonist
C) Stabilizer
D) Synergist ✔✔A) Agonist
What are the common neurophysiological mechanisms of myofascial rolling that result in decreased pain?
A) Roller pressure may increase viscosity, create myofascial restriction, increase pain, and increase cellular responses.
B) Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending antinociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)
C) Roller pressure may create greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance" through central nervous system (CNS) afferent input from the Golgi tendon reflex, gamma loop modulation, and mechanoreceptors.
D) Leading medical textbooks ✔✔B) Related myofascial therapies
Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller?
A) Perform passive movements such as trainer assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
B) Perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue.
C) Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
D) Roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds. ✔✔C) Perform active movements such as
flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.
Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller?
A) The textured roller may roll quicker and may be generating more friction than a smooth roller.
B) The textured roller was no different than the smooth roller.
C) The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
D) The texture roller exerts significantly more pressure to the tissue than a smooth one. ✔✔C)
The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.
What is the recommended number of active movements to include in Step 2 of the myofascial rolling program?
A) 2 to 3
B) 1 to 3
C) 4 to 6
D) 7 to 10 ✔✔C) 4 to 6
David is a 75-year-old retiree looking to get back in shape. After performing assessments, the Corrective Exercise Specialist decides he needs to inhibit and lengthen his calves. However, David tells the specialist that he is not comfortable using the myofascial roller. What represents the best response?
A) Tell David that he will not get satisfactory results if he does not roll.
B) Tell David that he must speak with a doctor to get out of rolling.
C) Avoid working with David if he refuses to roll.
What is one potential limitation to using handheld myofascial rollers?
A) Most are constructed of material that is too soft to use on muscles.
B) Most are constructed of material that is too dense to use on muscles.
C) Most require the use of one hand and generating sufficient pressure is difficult.
D) Most require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to the lower extremities. ✔✔D) Most
require the use of both hands and rolling is limited to the lower extremities.
What induces reciprocal inhibition in active stretching?
A) Contraction of antagonist muscles
B) Contraction of agonist muscles
C) Excitation of agonist muscles
D) Inhibit synergist muscles ✔✔A) Contraction of antagonist muscles
What degree of performance impairments are associated with prolonged static stretching in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities)?
A) 15-18%
B) 3-7%
C) 8-10%
D) 1-2% ✔✔B) 3-7%
A Corrective Exercise Specialist is implementing a static stretching program with a youth basketball team. What are the recommended acute training variables this type of stretching?
A) Hold 1-2 minutes, 4-6 repetitions, every other day
B) Hold 20-30 seconds, 1-4 repetitions, daily
C) Hold 15-30 seconds, 6-8 repetitions, once a week
D) Hold 20-30 seconds, 4-6 repetitions, twice a week ✔✔B) Hold 20-30 seconds, 1-4 repetitions,
daily
What is the most appropriate duration for an task-specific activities during warm-up?
A) Less than or equal to 2 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 5 to 15 minutes
A) A client can tolerate the maximum amount of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
B) A client can tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
C) A client can tolerate the maximum amount of pain during a dynamic stretching activity.
D) A client can only tolerate a short duration of stretching due to pain. ✔✔B) A client can
tolerate the level of discomfort during a prolonged stretch.
What is the most appropriate duration for a task-specific activity during warm-up?
A) Less than or equal to 5 minutes
B) Greater than 20 minutes
C) 5-15 minutes
D) Less than or equal to 2 minutes per muscle group ✔✔C) 5-15 minutes
What types of injuries might static stretching be most effective at reducing?
A) Tendonitis
B) Bone fractures
C) Ligament sprains
D) Musculotendinous strains ✔✔D) Musculotendinous strains
What is the minimum typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities) that would lead to performance impairments?
A) 30 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) 120 seconds
D) 60 seconds ✔✔D) 60 seconds
The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following?
A) Kendall's postures
B) Janda's syndromes
C) Clark's models
D) Mennell's truisms ✔✔D) Mennell's truisms
B) Maximize force production
C) Concentrically accelerate unwanted movement
D) Alleviate joint pain ✔✔A) Stabilize unwanted movement
Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following?
A) Isometric activation
B) Preferential activation
C) Positional isometrics
D) Ideal activation ✔✔B) Preferential activation
What type of activations will provide mild stress to muscles, which may be used as part of a recovery day?
A) Beginner-level activations
B) High-level activations
C) Low-level activations
D) Moderate-level activations ✔✔C) Low-level activations
The isometric tempo should last approximately how long?
A) 4 counts
B) 2 seconds
C) 3 counts
D) 1 count ✔✔B) 2 seconds
Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what?
A) Extensibility
B) Activation
C) Synergistic dominance
D) Intramuscular coordination ✔✔D) Intramuscular coordination
The Activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following?
D) "Keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe." ✔✔A) "Keep your knees in line with your
second and third toes."
What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action?
A) Protagonist
B) Type II muscle fibers
C) Antagonist
D) Agonist ✔✔D) Agonist
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser?
A) Concentric acceleration
B) The amortization phase
C) Eccentric deceleration
D) Isometric stabilization ✔✔C) Eccentric deceleration
What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form?
A) Give verbal cues
B) Decrease the load to require less from the muscles
C) Stop the exercise
D) Increase the load to demand more from the muscles ✔✔A) Give verbal cues
Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment?
A) Minimize injury to the non-dominate side
B) A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side
C) To effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominate side
D) Minimize injury to the dominate side ✔✔B) A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed?
