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1. In the asymmetrical shift, which muscles are most likely underactive? A. Same side gluteus maximus B. Opposite side anterior tibialis ✅ C. Same side hamstring D. Opposite side soleus Rationale: An underactive opposite anterior tibialis can lead to instability during asymmetrical shifts. 2. In the inhibit phase for knee impairments, which muscles should receive selfmyofascial release (SMR)? A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings C. Gastrocnemius/Soleus ✅ D. Adductors Rationale: These muscles are commonly overactive and require inhibition through SMR in knee impairment cases. 3. IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as: A. Jumper's knee B. Rower’s knee C. Runner’s knee ✅ D. Tennis knee Rationale: IT-Band syndrome is commonly known as "runner’s knee" due to its prevalence in runners.
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B. Decreases both ✅ C. Increases HR, decreases BP D. No effect Rationale: Beta blockers reduce sympathetic output, lowering HR and BP.
C. Hamstrings D. Gastrocnemius Rationale: The TFL contributes to knee valgus.
glutes Rationale: Lower crossed syndrome is characterized by this specific imbalance of overactive and underactive muscles across the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex.
68. Which of the following movements would activate the transverse plane? A. Forward lunge B. Side bend C. Trunk rotation D. Jump squat Correct Answer: C. Trunk rotation Rationale: The transverse plane divides the body top to bottom and includes rotational movements like trunk rotation or swinging a bat.
69. The relationship between tight pectoralis muscles and weak scapular retractors is commonly seen in which group? A. Powerlifters B. Sprinters C. Swimmers D. Cyclists Correct Answer: C. Swimmers Rationale: Swimmers often overuse pectoralis muscles during strokes, leading to tightness and underactive scapular retractors.
70. Which bones make up the subtalar joint? A. Tibia and fibula B. Femur and patella C. Talus and calcaneus D. Navicular and cuboid Correct Answer: C. Talus and calcaneus Rationale: The subtalar joint is formed by the articulation between the talus and calcaneus bones and allows for inversion and eversion of the foot. If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? - ANSWER hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic- hipcomplex (extension or flexion) during functional movements. Upper extremity movement impairment syndrome - ANSWER Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements. Lengthening Techniques - ANSWER 2nd phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen those overactive or tight neuromyofascial tissues. Lengthening - ANSWER refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint. 2 most common methods of stretching: - ANSWER Static stretching Neuromuscular stretching Static stretching - ANSWER Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo Neuromuscular stretching - ANSWER commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 - 15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds. Recurrent inhibition - ANSWER A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell. Stretch reflex - ANSWER A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle.
Static stretching is characterized by: - ANSWER The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time. Maximal control of structural alignment Minimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch) position. Neuromuscular stretching is (NMS) characterized by: - ANSWER Taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation) Active contraction of the muscle to be stretched Passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM Statically holding new position for 20-30 seconds and repeating 3 times. Neuromuscular stretching - ANSWER Is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relazation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate. Requires the assistance of another person. Autogenic inhibition - ANSWER The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles What is the origin of the Anterior Tibialis? - ANSWER The lateral condyle and proximal two thirds f the lateral surface of the tibia What is the origin of the Posterior Tibilais? - ANSWER Proximal two thirds surface of the tibia and fibula What is the origin of the Soleus? - ANSWER Posterior surface of the fibular head and proximal one third of its shaft and the posterior side of the tibia What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius? - ANSWER Posterior aspect of the lateral and medial femoral condyles
What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ANSWER Ischial ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ANSWER Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor brevis? - ANSWER Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? - ANSWER Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? - ANSWER Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? - ANSWER Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius? - ANSWER Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? - ANSWER Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? - ANSWER Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? - ANSWER Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? - ANSWER Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc
What is the origin of Sartorius? - ANSWER Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? - ANSWER more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum? - ANSWER inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance? - ANSWER when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances? - ANSWER pronation distortion syndrome which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints? - ANSWER feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one's base of support? - ANSWER transitional assessment which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment? - ANSWER heel of foot rises which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment? - ANSWER soleus, Lateral gastrocnemius, Bicep Femoris Short Head, which of the following best describes the purpose of the standing row assessment? - ANSWER evaluates the function of the LPHC and the scapular and cervical stabilizers
which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments? - ANSWER prone triceps extension with cobra during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position?
Clients with low back pain have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns with the ____and____ musculature being most noticeable - ANSWER transverse abdominius and multifidus what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist - ANSWER altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production - ANSWER synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity - ANSWER extension, abduction, external rotation which levers are the most common in the body and have the pull effort between the fulcrum and resistance? - ANSWER Third class levers which of the following is a common static malalignment associated with patellafemoral pain and ACL injury? - ANSWER Hyperpronation of the foot which of the following is an example of the predominantly sagittal plane movement? - ANSWER climbing stairs which of the following is an example of a predominantly frontal plane movement? - ANSWER side shuffling which plane of motion bisects the body into front and back halves and consists of primarily adduction and abduction movements - ANSWER frontal plane which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? - ANSWER transverse plane