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NASM CES Final Exam NASM All 2) ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED ANSWERS | GUARANTEED PAS, Exams of Physical Activity and Sport Sciences

1. In the asymmetrical shift, which muscles are most likely underactive? A. Same side gluteus maximus B. Opposite side anterior tibialis ✅ C. Same side hamstring D. Opposite side soleus Rationale: An underactive opposite anterior tibialis can lead to instability during asymmetrical shifts. 2. In the inhibit phase for knee impairments, which muscles should receive selfmyofascial release (SMR)? A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings C. Gastrocnemius/Soleus ✅ D. Adductors Rationale: These muscles are commonly overactive and require inhibition through SMR in knee impairment cases. 3. IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as: A. Jumper's knee B. Rower’s knee C. Runner’s knee ✅ D. Tennis knee Rationale: IT-Band syndrome is commonly known as "runner’s knee" due to its prevalence in runners.

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NASM CES Final Exam NASM All 2)
ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED
ANSWERS | GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED
A | LATEST UPDATE 2025-2026
1. In the asymmetrical shift, which muscles are most likely underactive?
A. Same side gluteus maximus
B. Opposite side anterior tibialis
C. Same side hamstring
D. Opposite side soleus
Rationale: An underactive opposite anterior tibialis can lead to instability during
asymmetrical shifts.
2. In the inhibit phase for knee impairments, which muscles should receive self-
myofascial release (SMR)?
A. Quadriceps
B. Hamstrings
C. Gastrocnemius/Soleus
D. Adductors
Rationale: These muscles are commonly overactive and require inhibition through SMR
in knee impairment cases.
3. IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as:
A. Jumper's knee
B. Rower’s knee
C. Runner’s knee
D. Tennis knee
Rationale: IT-Band syndrome is commonly known as "runner’s knee" due to its
prevalence in runners.
4. Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize the:
A. Hip and ankle
B. Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints
C. Lumbar spine
D. Iliotibial band
Rationale: These joints require precise neural control for stability and function.
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Download NASM CES Final Exam NASM All 2) ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED ANSWERS | GUARANTEED PAS and more Exams Physical Activity and Sport Sciences in PDF only on Docsity!

NASM CES Final Exam NASM All 2)

ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED

ANSWERS | GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED

A | LATEST UPDATE 2025- 2026

  1. In the asymmetrical shift, which muscles are most likely underactive? A. Same side gluteus maximus B. Opposite side anterior tibialis ✅ C. Same side hamstring D. Opposite side soleus Rationale: An underactive opposite anterior tibialis can lead to instability during asymmetrical shifts.
  2. In the inhibit phase for knee impairments, which muscles should receive self- myofascial release (SMR)? A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings C. Gastrocnemius/Soleus ✅ D. Adductors Rationale: These muscles are commonly overactive and require inhibition through SMR in knee impairment cases.
  3. IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as: A. Jumper's knee B. Rower’s knee C. Runner’s knee ✅ D. Tennis knee Rationale: IT-Band syndrome is commonly known as "runner’s knee" due to its prevalence in runners.
  4. Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize the: A. Hip and ankle B. Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints ✅ C. Lumbar spine D. Iliotibial band Rationale: These joints require precise neural control for stability and function.
  1. Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly: A. 60% of adults B. 70% of adults C. 80% of all adults ✅ D. 90% of seniors Rationale: Statistically, around 80% of adults experience low back pain at some point.
  2. Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as: A. Antagonists B. Stabilizers C. Synergists ✅ D. Fixators Rationale: Synergists support the prime movers in movement.
  3. What is the most prevalent shoulder injury? A. Labral tear B. Rotator cuff tear C. Frozen shoulder D. Shoulder impingementRationale: Shoulder impingement is the most common diagnosis for shoulder pain.
  4. When shoulder pain is reported, which is the most prevalent diagnosis? A. Bursitis B. Tendonitis C. Rotator cuff tear D. Shoulder impingementRationale: Most shoulder pain diagnoses are due to impingement.
  5. Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized _____ in relation to scapular retractors: A. Trapezius B. Deltoid C. Pectoralis ✅ D. Rhomboids Rationale: Swimmers frequently overuse the pectoral muscles, leading to muscular imbalances.
  6. Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern? A. Upper crossed syndrome B. Pronation distortion syndrome C. Lower crossed syndrome ✅ D. Lumbopelvic dysfunction

B. Decreases both ✅ C. Increases HR, decreases BP D. No effect Rationale: Beta blockers reduce sympathetic output, lowering HR and BP.

  1. What is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? A. Autogenic inhibition B. Reciprocal facilitation C. Altered reciprocal inhibition ✅ D. Neuromuscular shutdown Rationale: This is a key compensatory mechanism in movement dysfunctions.
  2. What is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? A. Reciprocal inhibition B. Synergistic dominance ✅ C. Autogenic inhibition D. Arthrokinetic dysfunction Rationale: It happens when the primary mover is underactive.
  3. What motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? A. Flexion, adduction, internal rotation B. Extension, abduction, external rotation ✅ C. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation D. Extension, adduction, external rotation Rationale: Supination involves this kinetic chain pattern at the knee.
  4. Which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? A. Tibiofemoral B. Patellofemoral ✅ C. Talocrural D. Sacroiliac Rationale: The patellofemoral joint is between the patella and femur.
  5. Which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? A. First class B. Second class C. Third class ✅ D. Fourth class Rationale: Third-class levers are most common in human movement.
  1. Which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? A. Gluteus medius B. Rectus femoris ✅ C. Adductor magnus D. Semimembranosus Rationale: Hip flexors, including rectus femoris, are overactive in lower crossed syndrome.
  2. Which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting? A. Rectus abdominis B. Hamstring C. Iliopsoas ✅ D. Gluteus maximus Rationale: The hip flexor iliopsoas shortens while seated.
  3. Which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening? A. Rectus femoris B. Infraspinatus ✅ C. Pectoralis major D. Soleus Rationale: Infraspinatus, a rotator cuff muscle, often becomes weak and lengthened.
  4. A runner who experiences recurring plantar fasciitis, shin splints, and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by: A. Upper crossed syndrome B. Lower crossed syndrome C. Pronation distortion syndrome ✅ D. Iliotibial band syndrome Rationale: Pronation distortion involves faulty foot mechanics leading to those issues.
  5. An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the U.S.: A. 50,000–60, B. 60,000–75, C. 80,000 to 100,000 ✅ D. 120,000+ Rationale: ACL injuries are common among athletes and the general public.
  6. During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift. Which muscles could be underactive? A. TFL B. Gluteus medius on the side of the shift ✅ C. Vastus lateralis

C. Hamstrings D. Gastrocnemius Rationale: The TFL contributes to knee valgus.

  1. If a client demonstrates an asymmetric shift, which muscle should be statically stretched? A. Opposite gluteus medius B. TFL same side ✅ C. Piriformis D. Iliacus Rationale: TFL tightness on the shifting side pulls the body laterally.
  2. If the low back arches during movement, which muscle should receive SMR? A. Gluteus medius B. Latissimus dorsi ✅ C. Rhomboids D. Trapezius Rationale: Tight lats contribute to excessive lumbar arching.
  3. Functionally tightened or overactive muscles in lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include: A. Gluteus medius and minimus B. Peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors ✅ C. Quadriceps D. Erector spinae Rationale: These are commonly overactive due to faulty movement patterns.
  4. Excessive forward lean in overhead squat may indicate overactivity in: A. Hamstrings B. Soleus ✅ C. Rectus femoris D. Gluteus medius Rationale: Tight soleus limits ankle dorsiflexion and causes compensatory forward lean.
  5. A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates overactivity in: A. Hamstrings B. Hip flexors ✅ C. Gluteus maximus D. Transverse abdominis Rationale: Tight hip flexors pull the pelvis into anterior tilt.
  1. Hips shifted off the midline likely indicate: A. Scoliosis B. Load-bearing habits to the side ✅ C. Neurological deficits D. Core weakness Rationale: Habitual weight shifting leads to lateral deviation.
  2. How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda? A. 2 B. 3 ✅ C. 4 D. 5 Rationale: Janda identified upper crossed, lower crossed, and pronation distortion patterns.
  3. Which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? A. Hip abduction B. Knee extension C. Radioulnar supination ✅ D. Ankle dorsiflexion Rationale: Supination occurs along the transverse axis.
  4. Which of the following is an example of a predominantly frontal plane movement? A. Squatting B. Side shuffling ✅ C. Bicep curling D. Jumping Rationale: Side-to-side motions occur in the frontal plane.
  5. Which muscle would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks proper function? A. Iliopsoas B. Rectus femoris C. Hamstrings ✅ D. Gastrocnemius Rationale: The hamstrings compensate for gluteus maximus dysfunction.
  6. Which plane bisects the body into top and bottom halves, involving rotational movement? A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Transverse ✅
  1. 63. What muscle is likely to be underactive in a client exhibiting a forward lean during an overhead squat? A. Soleus B. Rectus femoris C. Erector spinae D. Anterior tibialis Correct Answer: D. Anterior tibialis Rationale: A forward lean can result from underactivity of the anterior tibialis, which helps maintain proper dorsiflexion during squatting.
  2. 64. During a single-leg squat, if the knee moves inward, which muscle is likely underactive? A. Gluteus medius B. TFL C. Adductor longus D. Vastus lateralis Correct Answer: A. Gluteus medius Rationale: Inward knee movement (valgus) typically results from underactive gluteus medius muscles, which help stabilize the hip and femur.
  3. 65. Which movement pattern involves movement primarily in the frontal plane? A. Walking forward B. Squatting C. Jumping jacks D. Lunging Correct Answer: C. Jumping jacks Rationale: Movements in the frontal plane involve side-to-side motion, like jumping jacks or side shuffles.
  4. 66. Which muscle is often found tight in individuals who sit for prolonged periods? A. Gluteus medius B. Iliopsoas C. Hamstrings D. Infraspinatus Correct Answer: B. Iliopsoas Rationale: The iliopsoas becomes shortened and tight due to prolonged hip flexion from sitting.
  5. 67. What muscular imbalance is typically present in lower crossed syndrome? A. Tight gluteus maximus and weak iliopsoas B. Tight hamstrings and weak quadriceps C. Tight hip flexors and erector spinae; weak abdominals and glutes D. Balanced musculature Correct Answer: C. Tight hip flexors and erector spinae; weak abdominals and

glutes Rationale: Lower crossed syndrome is characterized by this specific imbalance of overactive and underactive muscles across the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex.

  1. 68. Which of the following movements would activate the transverse plane? A. Forward lunge B. Side bend C. Trunk rotation D. Jump squat Correct Answer: C. Trunk rotation Rationale: The transverse plane divides the body top to bottom and includes rotational movements like trunk rotation or swinging a bat.

  2. 69. The relationship between tight pectoralis muscles and weak scapular retractors is commonly seen in which group? A. Powerlifters B. Sprinters C. Swimmers D. Cyclists Correct Answer: C. Swimmers Rationale: Swimmers often overuse pectoralis muscles during strokes, leading to tightness and underactive scapular retractors.

  3. 70. Which bones make up the subtalar joint? A. Tibia and fibula B. Femur and patella C. Talus and calcaneus D. Navicular and cuboid Correct Answer: C. Talus and calcaneus Rationale: The subtalar joint is formed by the articulation between the talus and calcaneus bones and allows for inversion and eversion of the foot. If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances? - ANSWER hip flexors If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive?

  • ANSWER adductor complex If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
  • ANSWER quadratus lumborum

rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic- hipcomplex (extension or flexion) during functional movements. Upper extremity movement impairment syndrome - ANSWER Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements. Lengthening Techniques - ANSWER 2nd phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen those overactive or tight neuromyofascial tissues. Lengthening - ANSWER refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint. 2 most common methods of stretching: - ANSWER Static stretching Neuromuscular stretching Static stretching - ANSWER Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo Neuromuscular stretching - ANSWER commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 - 15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds. Recurrent inhibition - ANSWER A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell. Stretch reflex - ANSWER A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle.

Static stretching is characterized by: - ANSWER The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time. Maximal control of structural alignment Minimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch) position. Neuromuscular stretching is (NMS) characterized by: - ANSWER Taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation) Active contraction of the muscle to be stretched Passively (or actively) moving to a new end ROM Statically holding new position for 20-30 seconds and repeating 3 times. Neuromuscular stretching - ANSWER Is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relazation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate. Requires the assistance of another person. Autogenic inhibition - ANSWER The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles What is the origin of the Anterior Tibialis? - ANSWER The lateral condyle and proximal two thirds f the lateral surface of the tibia What is the origin of the Posterior Tibilais? - ANSWER Proximal two thirds surface of the tibia and fibula What is the origin of the Soleus? - ANSWER Posterior surface of the fibular head and proximal one third of its shaft and the posterior side of the tibia What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius? - ANSWER Posterior aspect of the lateral and medial femoral condyles

What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ANSWER Ischial ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus? - ANSWER Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis What is the origin of Adductor brevis? - ANSWER Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of Gracilis? - ANSWER Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis What is the origin of Pectineus? - ANSWER Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius? - ANSWER Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius? - ANSWER Outer surface of the ilium What is the origin of Gluteus maximus? - ANSWER Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament What is the origin of Gluteus minimus? - ANSWER Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late? - ANSWER Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis What is the origin of Psoas? - ANSWER Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc

What is the origin of Sartorius? - ANSWER Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population? - ANSWER more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum? - ANSWER inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance? - ANSWER when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances? - ANSWER pronation distortion syndrome which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints? - ANSWER feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one's base of support? - ANSWER transitional assessment which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment? - ANSWER heel of foot rises which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment? - ANSWER soleus, Lateral gastrocnemius, Bicep Femoris Short Head, which of the following best describes the purpose of the standing row assessment? - ANSWER evaluates the function of the LPHC and the scapular and cervical stabilizers

which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments? - ANSWER prone triceps extension with cobra during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position?

  • ANSWER dorsiflexion and inversion flexion of the ankle is called - ANSWER dorsiflexion functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include - ANSWER peroneals, lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, lateral hamstrings, IT band adductors low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly - ANSWER 80% of all adults Most ACL injuries occur between the ages of - ANSWER 15 to 25 muscles assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as - ANSWER synergists NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum is organized into which four phases - ANSWER inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate of all the work related injuries that involve the trunk, more than ____involve the low back - ANSWER 60% of the following shoulder injuries which diagnosis is the most common? - ANSWER shoulder impingment

Clients with low back pain have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns with the ____and____ musculature being most noticeable - ANSWER transverse abdominius and multifidus what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist - ANSWER altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production - ANSWER synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity - ANSWER extension, abduction, external rotation which levers are the most common in the body and have the pull effort between the fulcrum and resistance? - ANSWER Third class levers which of the following is a common static malalignment associated with patellafemoral pain and ACL injury? - ANSWER Hyperpronation of the foot which of the following is an example of the predominantly sagittal plane movement? - ANSWER climbing stairs which of the following is an example of a predominantly frontal plane movement? - ANSWER side shuffling which plane of motion bisects the body into front and back halves and consists of primarily adduction and abduction movements - ANSWER frontal plane which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? - ANSWER transverse plane