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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training, Assignments of Safety and Fire Engineering

Phoenix College Safety and Fire Engineering

A collection of multiple choice questions and answers related to emergency medical technician (emt) training. It covers various topics, including anatomy, physiology, patient assessment, and emergency procedures. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of key concepts in emt practice. This resource can be valuable for students preparing for emt certification exams or for emt professionals seeking to refresh their knowledge.

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2024/2025

Available from 01/07/2025

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Phoenix Fire Paramedic Test Study Guide

(100 out of 100) Questions and Answers

(Latest Update)

1. Basic life support (BLS) is noninvasive, meaning that it:

A. can only be performed by EMT-Basics.

B. focuses only on severe bleeding control.

C. is only used to treat an obstructed airway.

D. does not involve penetration of the body.

2. After ___ minutes without oxygen, some brain damage is almost certain.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Ans: D 6

Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: A-3

3. What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-

month-old infant?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

Partial preview of the text

Download Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training and more Assignments Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!

Phoenix Fire Paramedic Test Study Guide

(100 out of 100) Questions and Answers

(Latest Update)

Basic life support (BLS) is noninvasive, meaning that it: A. can only be performed by EMT-Basics. B. focuses only on severe bleeding control. C. is only used to treat an obstructed airway. D. does not involve penetration of the body. D. does not involve penetration of the body.
After ___ minutes without oxygen, some brain damage is almost certain. A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Ans: D 6 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 3
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4- month-old infant? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110

D. 120

Ans: B. 100 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 4 We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should: A. open the airway. B. assess for breathing. C. check for a carotid pulse. D. attach an AED immediately. Ans: A open the airway. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-3, A- 4
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? A. Abdominal thrusts B. Chest compressions C. Cardiac monitoring D. Automated defibrillation Ans: C Cardiac monitoring Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 5 We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Most out-of-hospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:

The automated external defibrillator (AED) should be applied to: A. uninjured patients who are pulseless and apneic. B. trauma patients who are in cardiopulmonary arrest. C. medical patients who have a very weak, slow pulse. D. patients who you think may experience cardiac arrest. Ans: A uninjured patients who are pulseless and apneic. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-5, A- 6
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is MOST correct? A. AEDs should never be used on children less than 8 years of age or less than 55 pounds. B. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest. C. AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer. D. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation. Ans: C AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 6
Which of the following is considered to be an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? A. Dependent blood pooling B. Pulselessness and apnea C. Agonal respiratory effort D. Severe cyanosis to the face Ans: A Dependent blood pooling Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: A-6, A- 7

CPR should be initiated when: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. signs of putrefaction are present. Ans: B a valid living will is unavailable. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 7
Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started? A. Pulse and respirations return. B. You are physically exhausted. C. A physician directs you to do so. D. Care is transferred to a bystander. Ans: D Care is transferred to a bystander Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 8
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: A. prone. B. supine. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface. Ans: A prone.

B. compressing the lower third of the sternum. C. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid. D. depressing the sternum 2 inches to 2 ½ inches. Ans: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 21 - A- 23

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of: A. 5: B. 5: C. 15: D. 30: Ans: D 30: Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 26
To deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions per minute during one-rescuer adult CPR, you will need to compress the patient's chest about ____ times per minute. A. 80 B. 90 C. 100 D. 110 Ans: C 100 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 24

During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor becomes tired and wants to switch positions. Before the switch is made, the rescuer providing ventilations should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for about 10 to 15 seconds. B. give two breaths and then prepare to start compressions. C. immediately move to the chest and resume compressions. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. Ans: B give two breaths and then prepare to start compressions Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-27, A- 28
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a cervical spine injury is suspected? A. Jaw-thrust B. Tongue-jaw lift C. Head-tilt neck-lift D. Head-tilt chin-lift Ans: A Jaw-thrust Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-10, A- 11 We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
When ventilating an apneic patient with a pocket face mask, you should deliver each breath: A. over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds. B. while watching for adequate chest rise. C. with a tidal volume of about 500 mL. D. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation. Ans: B while watching for adequate chest rise.

B. inability to speak. C. grasping the throat. D. forceful coughing. Ans: D forceful coughing Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 11

Asynchronous CPR is MOST accurately defined as: A. pausing compressions to deliver ventilations. B. delivering a compression during a ventilation. C. delivering 2 ventilations after 30 compressions. D. not stopping compressions to deliver ventilations. Ans: D not stopping compressions to deliver ventilations. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 26
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A. until a radial pulse is felt. B. with one or two hands. C. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. D. 70 to 80 times per minute. Ans: B with one or two hands. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A-4, A-28, A- 30
An apneic infant or child should be ventilated ___ times per minute.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 30

Ans: C 20 Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 4

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: A. one-third to one-half the diameter of the chest B. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest C. one-half the diameter of the chest or about 1 ½" D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2" Ans: A one-third to one-half the diameter of the chest Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 4
In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A. a drug overdose. B. respiratory arrest. C. severe chest trauma. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia. Ans: B respiratory arrest. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 28

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: A. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. C. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. D. advising the patient not to make attempts to cough. Ans: C administering oxygen and transporting immediately Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 14
When attempting manual removal of a foreign body from an unconscious patient's upper airway, you should: A. use a modified jaw thrust. B. use a head-tilt chin-lift. C. hyperflex the patient's neck. D. hyperextend the patient's neck. Ans: B use a head-tilt chin-lift. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 14
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: A. in patients who are intubated. B. if you ventilate a patient too fast. C. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. D. when the airway is completely obstructed. Ans: B if you ventilate a patient too fast. Question Type: General Knowledge

Page: A-18, A- 19

If gastric distention is interfering with your ability to adequately ventilate a patient, you may have to: A. apply manual pressure to the abdomen. B. suction the airway for up to 45 seconds. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. increase the force of your ventilations. Ans: A apply manual pressure to the abdomen. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 19
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. rib fractures. B. liver laceration. C. gastric distention. D. a fractured sternum. Ans: C gastric distention. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: A- 21
During your attempts to dislodge a severe upper airway obstruction in a 30-year-old male, the patient becomes unconscious. You should: A. continue abdominal thrusts. B. perform a blind finger sweep. C. place him in a supine position. D. deliver a series of five back blows.

B. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and am ready to die when the time comes." D. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." Ans: B "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26 We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? A. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. C. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. Ans: C The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26
The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as: A. anger. B. denial. C. depression. D. acceptance. Ans: D acceptance. Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 26

Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? A. "Things will get better in time." B. "It is okay to be angry and sad." C. "This must be painful for you." D. "Tell me how you are feeling." Ans: A Things will get better in time." Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 27
Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. "Am I going to die?" B. "How much will this cost me?" C. "What are you doing to me?" D. "Will I be permanently disabled?" Ans: B How much will this cost me?" Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 27
While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family may view this as: A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. coaching them through the grieving process. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude. Ans: A your partner's attempt to diminish their grief Question Type: General Knowledge

Ans: D acknowledge the death of their child in private Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 30- 31

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. psychological disorders. B. distrust of the EMT-B. C. history of chronic disease. D. fear of medical personnel. Ans: B distrust of the EMT-B.
The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery Ans: A Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 32
The chemical and physical reactions commonly referred to as the "fight or flight" response involve interaction of the: A. nervous and endocrine systems. B. respiratory and nervous systems. C. gastrointestinal and nervous systems.

D. cardiovascular and endocrine systems. Ans: B respiratory and nervous systems Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 32- 33

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? A. An EMT-B with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. B. A newly certified EMT-B becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT-B is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. D. An EMT-B becomes distracted at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving the same type of car that a child was previously killed in. Ans: D respiratory and nervous systems Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33 We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT-B is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? A. Acute stress reaction B. Cumulative stress reaction C. Posttraumatic stress reaction D. Critical incident stress reaction Ans: B Cumulative stress reaction Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 33

Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training, Assignments of Safety and Fire Engineering

Related documents

Partial preview of the text

Download Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Training and more Assignments Safety and Fire Engineering in PDF only on Docsity!

Phoenix Fire Paramedic Test Study Guide

(100 out of 100) Questions and Answers

(Latest Update)

D. 120

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 30