MCMP 422 Exam 3 Questions And Accurate Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

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MCMP 422 Exam 3 Questions And Accurate Answers

"Original antigenic sin" is best defined as a phenomenon wherein ___.

A. highly mutable virus progressively escapes the immunologic memory and compromises compensatory immune responses. B. latent viruses episodically reactivate T effector cells that are specific to the originally recognized antigen presented in the primary immune response. C. antigen persistence is required to maintain immunologic memory. D. memory T cells no longer express the same profile of adhesion molecules and cytokine receptors compared with the original profile of the naive precursor T cell. - Answer A. a highly mutable virus gradually escapes from immunological memory and interferes with compensatory immune responses.

A conjugate vaccine is one that couples _____ to _____ so as to stimulate T-dependent antibody responses.

A. polysaccharide; a protein carrier B. a protein carrier; irradiated DNA C. protein carrier; toxoids D. adjuvant; toxoids E. ysaccharide; filamentous hemagglutinin - Answer A. polysaccharide; a protein carrier

An adjuvant enhances the effectiveness of vaccines through the induction of the expression of _____ on ________.

A.co-stimulatory molecules; macrophages and dendritic cells B. CD28; macrophages

C. MHC class II molecules; T cells D. T-cell receptor; T cells E. immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs; dendritic cells - Answer A. co-stimulatory molecules; macrophages and dendritic cells

What is the mechanism by which fetal erythrocytes are destroyed in hemolytic anemia of the newborn?

A. lysis of erythrocytes by cytotoxic T cells B. lysis of erythrocytes by complement activation C. clearance of antibody-coated erythrocytes by macrophages in the fetal spleen D. lysis of erythrocytes by NK cells via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity E. cytotoxicity due to major basic protein released from eosinophils. - Answer C. removal of antibody-coated erythrocytes by macrophages in the fetal spleen

By what means do memory B cells involved in a secondary immune response differ from the naive B-cell population activated in a primary immune response? (Select all that apply.)

A. The antibody produced is of higher affinity in a secondary immune response. B. Antigen-specific B cells are in low frequency in a secondary immune response. C. Somatic hypermutation is more extensive in the secondary immune response. D. IgM is produced in greater quantity in the case of secondary immune responses. E. The T-cell help is not required for B cells in the case of secondary immune responses. F. Memory B cells express a higher amount of MHC class II molecules. G. Naive B cells express higher levels of co-stimulatory molecules. -Answer A. The antibody produced is of higher affinity in a secondary immune response. C. The level of somatic hypermutation is higher in a secondary immune response. F. Memory B cells express higher levels of MHC class II molecules.

D. formalin treatment - Answer A. irradiation B. heat treatment D. formalin treatment

Which of the following is characteristic of immunological memory? (Select all that apply.)

A. The host retains the ability to initiate a secondary immune response. A. The host retains the capacity to mount a secondary immune response. B. The host retains the ability to respond to pathogen many years after primary exposure. C. Naive T cells are activated more quickly when exposed to pathogen. D. Memory B cells produce higher-affinity antibody than naive B cells. E. Memory T cells undergo somatic hypermutation. F. Memory T cells express CD45RA. Answer A is the correct definition of immunologic memory. B. The host retains the capability to respond to pathogen many years after primary exposure. D. Memory B cells make higher-affinity antibody compared to naive B cells.

Which of the following is NOT true about an inactivated or killed virus vaccine?

A. It induces a robust B cell response B. It induces a robust T cell response C. Is generally administered intramuscularly D. It usually results in a humoral response - Answer B. It results in an intense T cell response

The following statements listed below are not true about memory B cells. Which one?

A. Memory B cells are maintained for life. B. In secondary responses, the number of pathogen-specific B cells is about 10-100-fold that seen in primary responses. C. Affinity is higher due to affinity maturation having taken place. D. Memory B cells express lower levels of MHC class II and B7 compared to naive B cells. E. Memory B cells differentiate into plasma cells more rapidly than do naive B cells. - Answer D. Memory B cells express lower levels of MHC class II and B7 than do naive B cells.

Which of the following is NOT an inactivated virus vaccine?

A. Flumist B. Salk Polio vaccine C. Hepatitis A D. Influenza - Answer A. Flumist

Reasons complicating the development of vaccines to combat chronic diseases include _____. (Select all that apply.)

A. the ability of the pathogen to evade the host's immune system B. the polymorphic diversity of MHC class I and class II molecules C. the induction of ineffective immune responses that cannot eliminate the pathogen D. the persistence of the infectious agent for extended time periods within the host E. high mutation rates in the pathogen - Answer A. evasion of the host's immune system by the pathogen B. the polymorphic diversity of MHC class I and class II molecules C. the generation of inappropriate immune responses that do not eradicate the pathogen

A. prevents killing of self cells B. is an inhibitory NK-cell receptor C. binds to carbohydrate ligands D. is a disulfide-linked heterodimer E. includes an immunoreceptor tyrosine-based inhibitory motif (ITIM) - Answer C. bind to carbohydrate ligands

The following is NOT a characteristic of γ:δ T cells?

A. They lack expression of CD28. B. They are MHC restricted. C. The majority do not express CD4 or CD8. D. The majority of circulating cells do not enter secondary lymphoid tissue. E. They undergo gene rearrangement. -Answer B. They are subject to MHC restriction

The only single receptor capable of activating NK cells in the absence of the need for a second activating receptor is _____.

A. NKG2D B. CD C. 2B D. CD94:NKG2A E. CD16 -Answer E. CD

T cells undergo positive selection to recognize "self" whereas NK cells are often said to recognize "missing self." Which of the following is NOT a way in which NK cells do not kill other body cells?

A. Some NK cells express CD94:NKG2A, which binds HLA-E presenting peptides from

the leader sequences of HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C B. NK cells that during development lack inhibitory receptors that recognize HLA class I molecules become anergic C. Developing NK cells that lack inhibitory receptors for HLA class I become anergic D. Developing NK cells that express activating receptors for self HLA class I become anergic E. In development, NK cells capable of recognizing HLA class I molecules presenting self-peptides undergo apoptosis and are eliminated - Answer E. In development, NK cells capable of recognizing HLA class I molecules presenting self-peptides undergo apoptosis and are eliminated

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the evolution of the immune system?

A. Innate immune system developed after the appearance of the adaptive immune system B. The adaptive immune system is only present in invertebrates C. Sharks are devoid of the adaptive immune system D. The appearance of the RAG genes coincided with the appearance of the adaptive immune system - Answer D. The appearance of the RAG genes coincided with the appearance of the adaptive immune system

Which of the following statements about NK cells is incorrect? A. They either express inhibitory receptors or activating receptors, but not both. B. Their inhibitory receptors are required to prevent killing of healthy cells. C. They all express CD56. D. Because NK cells express diverse combinations of receptors, no single NK cell expresses them all. E. Some of their activating and inhibitory receptors use MHC class I ligands. - Answer A. They express either inhibitory receptors or activating receptors, but not both.

A. pilin B. flagellin C. variable surface glycoproteins (VSGs) D. hemagglutinin - Answer C. variable surface glycoproteins (VSGs)

Herpesviruses include all of the following except ____. A. varicella-zoster B. Epstein-Barr virus C. herpes simplex virus D. cytomegalovirus E. All of the above are herpesviruses. - Answer E. All of the above are herpesviruses. Listeria monocytogenes replicates in _____ of macrophages after ___. A. the phagosome; inhibition of fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome B. the cytosol; escaping from the phagosome C. a membrane-bound vesicle special in nature; infection of the cell D. extracellular spaces; coating itself with human proteins E. nucleus; fusion with the nuclear membrane - Answer B. the cytosol; escaping from the phagosome

Shingles is associated with infection by ____.

A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. herpes zoster D. Candida albicans E. Listeria monocytogenes - Answer C. herpes zoster

What medical condition does a Staphylococci infection result in? A. Toxic shock syndrome from the action of superantigens B. Dysentry from the action of superantigens C. Toxic shock syndrome from disabling of macrophages D. Cold sores from the infection of the trigeminal neurons - Answer A. Toxic shock syndrome from the action of superantigens

Which one of the following is mismatched?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae: sexually transmitted disease B. Salmonella typhimurium: food poisoning C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Variable pilin protein expression D. Salmonella typhimurium: Coating its surface with host proteins - Answer D. Salmonella typhimurium: Coating its surface with host proteins

_____ are associated with mild and limited diseases, while _____ are associated with more severe diseases and higher mortality.

A. Antigenic drift; antigenic shift B. Antigenic shift; antigenic drift C. Epidemics; pandemics D. Pandemics; epidemics - Answer A. Antigenic drift; antigenic shift

A genetic defect in _____ results in the accumulation of toxic levels of nucleotide metabolites and loss of T-cell function. A. NADPH oxidase B. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase C. myeloperoxidase D. SH2D1A

D. X-linked immunodeficiencies are inherited more frequently by females than males. E. Infections by extracellular bacteria are common in impairment syndromes that result from defects in T cells. -Answer B. Death rates are minimized by the use of antibiotics on individuals affected by it.

______ is a condition wherein a gene that involves the operation of the immune system mutates and hence impairs the body's mechanisms of protection against infection.

A. gene conversion B. epidemics C. primary immunodeficiency disease D. secondary immunodeficiency disease E. seroconversion -Answer C. primary immunodeficiency disease

During infection with HIV, a person is said to undergo seroconversion when ___. A. HIV variants convert from macrophage-tropic to lymphocyte-tropic late in infection B. anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum C. cellular transcription favors the production of HIV-encoded RNA D. HIV is transferred from an infected person to an uninfected recipient E. the initial phase of infection is followed by clinical latency - Answer B. anti-HIV antibodies are detectable in their blood serum

To produce infectious HIV virions, the infected cell must _____. Choose all that apply

A. be CD4-positive B. express low levels of CCR C. express functional NFκB D. be latent

E. be polyreactive - Answer A. be CD4-positive C. express functional NFκB

Reverse transcriptase is a _____encoded by ____.

A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV B. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase; influenza virus C. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; influenza virus E. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase; HIV Answer C. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase; HIV

Some patients are resistant to HIV infection because a productive infection cannot be established in macrophages or memory T cells. What is the likely explanation for this? This can be attributed to the following reasons: A. They have a specific variant of HLA polymorphismB. They are homozygous for a mutant form of CCR5 that can't be utilized by HIV as a co-receptorC. They make antibodies against the GP41 proteinD. They have been previously infected with simian immunodeficiency virus -Answer B. They are homozygous for a mutant form of CCR5 that can't be utilized by HIV as a co-receptor

The pol gene of HIV encodes for all of the following except ____. A. integrase B. protease C. matrix protein D. reverse transcriptase ANSWER C. matrix protein Which genetic event can transform a HIV macrophage tropic virus to a lymphocyte tropic virus? A. A gene conversion in the proviral DNA

A. NFkB transcription factor initiates the transcription of mRNA molecules containing high mutation rates B. Activation-induced deaminase introduces point mutations within the proviral DNA C. The HIV reverse transcriptase will splice RNA into random combinations resulting in surface glycoproteins with varied epitopes D. The HIV reverse transcriptase is an error-prone DNA polymerase resulting in increased protein mutations. -Answer D. The HIV reverse transcriptase is an error-prone DNA polymerase resulting in increased protein mutations.

Which viral targets for HIV therapy is involved in the processing of long viral polypeptides into shorter peptides(select ONE that applies):

A. reverse transcriptase B. matrix protein C. gp D. CD E. protease - Answer E. protease

Adaptive immune responses targeted at infections by helminth worms and other parasitic multicellular animals employ all of the following except ____. A. CD8 T cells B. IgE C. eosinophils D. mast cells E. CD4 TH2 cells F. basophils G. IL-4 - Answer A. CD8 T cells

All of the following are biological effects mediated by the products of mast cells except _____.

A. chemotaxis of neutrophils, eosinophils, and effector T cells B. growth factor secretion C. smooth muscle contraction D. connective tissue remodeling E. All of the above are mediated by mast cells -Answer E. All of the above are mediated by mast cells

Anita Garcia 17 years, and her roommate Rosa Rosario were celebrating a friend's birthday at a dessert buffet at a local restaurant when Anita developed acute dyspnea, and angioedema. She complained of an itchy rash and then had difficulty swallowing. Rosa drove Anita to the emergency room two blocks away rather than wait for an ambulance. As they approached the hospital, Anita lost consciousness.

Anita was suffering from _______ likely caused by _____ present in the cake. A. Food poisoning; bacterial toxins B. Contact dermatitis: plant oils C. Anaphylaxis; nuts D. Type III hypersensitivity; preservative compounds - Answer C. Anaphylaxis; nuts Aspirin (acetyl salicylate) inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by binding irreversibly to prostaglandin synthase, the first enzyme in the _____ pathway. A. cyclooxygenase B. carboxypeptidase C. metalloprotease D. lipooxygenase E. peroxidase - Answer A. cyclooxygenase

During a primary immune response IgM sometimes switches directly to IgE. Which of the

C. a late-phase type IV allergic response D. an immediate type III allergic response E. a late-phase type III allergic response - Answer A. an immediate type I allergic response

Which of the following are associated with soluble antigen? (Select all that apply)

A. type I hypersensitivity B. type II hypersensitivity C. type III hypersensitivity D. type IV hypersensitivity E. mast-cell activation - Answer A. type I hypersensitivity C. type III hypersensitivity D. type IV hypersensitivity E. mast-cell activation

Which of the following are consequences of anaphylactic shock? (Select all that apply)

A. smooth muscle contraction B. deposition of immune complexes on the blood vessels C. loss of blood pressure D. constriction of airways E. activation of complement - Answer A. contraction of smooth muscle C. loss of blood pressure D. constriction of airways

Which of the following are correctly matched pairs? (Select all that apply)

A. type I hypersensitivity: IgE B. type II hypersensitivity: IgG C. type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes D. type IV hypersensitivity: IgG E. type IV hypersensitivity: delayed-type hypersensitivity - Answer A. type I hypersensitivity: IgE B. type II hypersensitivity: IgG C. type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes E. type IV hypersensitivity: delayed-type hypersensitivity

For the following question select all answer choices that are correct.

Which of the following are possible ways that type I allergic reactions can be treated or prevented? (Select all that apply)

A. Administer antihistamines to block histamine binding to H1 histamine receptors. B. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. C. Desensitize the patient by feeding them allergen and skewing the immune response from an IgE to an IgA response. D. Anergize allergen-specific T cells through vaccination with allergen-derived peptides. E. Administer Il-4, IL-5, or IL-1β to promote TH1 responses. G. Block high-affinity IgE receptors to prevent mast-cell degranulation. - Answer A. Use antihistamines to block histamine binding to H1 histamine receptors. B. Use corticosteroids to suppress inflammation. D. Anergize allergen-specific T cells by vaccination with allergen-derived peptides. G. Block high-affinity IgE receptors to inhibit mast-cell degranulation.