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165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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Which Windows Server 2016 feature allows a user to utilize a software environment in which an application can run but is isolated from much of the rest of the operating system and other applications? a. Hyper-V b. Storage Spaces c. Nano Server d. Windows Containers - ansWindows Containers Which Windows Server 2016 core technology provides a single interface for installing, configuring, and removing a variety of server roles and features on your Windows server? a. Server Manager b. Microsoft Management Console c. Windows Networking d. Active Directory - ansServer Manager What type of Windows server has Active Directory installed and is responsible for allowing client computers access to domain resources? a. SQL Server b. Directory Server c. Domain Controller d. Member Server - ansDomain Controller Which of the following technologies allows you to decouple the physical storage hardware from the storage requirements of the applications that use it, providing a flexible storage solution? a. File and Storage Services b. Virtual provisioning c. Disk Management d. Software-defined storage - ansSoftware-defined storage Which file system supports encryption, compression, and the use of volumes? a. FAT b. NTFS c. FAT d. exFAT - ansNTFS Office 365, OneDrive, and DropBox are all examples of what type of computing? a. Domain b. Open cloud c. Public cloud d. Private cloud - ansPublic cloud Which of the following is a collection of technologies for abstracting the details of how applications, storage, network, and other computing resources are delivered to users? a. Remote computing b. Cloud computing c. Managed computing d. Client/Server computing - ansCloud computing Which of the following is a feature in Active Directory?(Choose all that apply.) a. single point administration of network resources b. peer-to-peer network administration c. enable administrators to assign system policies
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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d. centralized authentication and authorization of users to network resources - anssingle point administration of network resources enable administrators to assign system policies centralized authentication and authorization of users to network resources Which of the following is a command-line interactive scripting environment that provides the commands for almost any management task in a Windows Server 2016 environment? a. PowerShell b. Serer manager c. MMC d. Command Prompt - ansPowerShell Which major view options are displayed in the left pane of the Server Manager window?(Choose all that apply.) a. Dashboard b. Disk Management snap-in c. All Servers d. Local Server - ansDashboard All Servers Local Server What GUI-less Windows Server 2016 option is intended to be used as a tool to deploy a single well-defined service? a. Standard Server b. Data Center c. Server Core d. Nano Server - ansNano Server Which of the following services is supported in Windows Server 2016, but not supported in Windows 10? a. File and Printer Sharing b. Web Server c. DHCP d. Hyper-V - ansDHCP Which of the following is a new feature in Windows Server 2016 that enables block-level data replication to occur automatically between datacenters located across the hall or on the opposite side of the world? a. Windows Containers b. Storage Spaces Direct c. Storage Replica d. Storage Spaces - ansStorage Replica Which of the following technologies uses software to emulate multiple hardware environments that can utilize multiple operating systems? a. hypervisor b. containers c. virtualization
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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True False - ansTrue Select the Windows Server versions that can support an in-place upgrade to Windows Server 2016? (Choose all that apply.) a. Windows Server 2012 R b. Windows Server 2012 c. Windows Server 2008 d. Windows Server 2008 R2 - ansWindows Server 2012 R Windows Server 2012 Windows Server 2016 requires activation within 90 days after installation. True False - ansFalse Name the two virtualization extensions that are prerequisites to installing the Hyper-V role when using an Intel processor. - ansIntel-VT and Extended Page Table (EPT) If a physical server has two processors, each with 8 cores for a total of 16 cores, how many license packs would need to be purchased to operate this server using Windows Server 2016 Standard or Datacenter editions? - ansEight 2-core license packs for a total of 16 core licenses. When you are adding a server to an existing network, what must be decided at the time you are adding the new server? - ansYou have to decide if the server will be a domain controller, member server or a standalone server. Which of the following are additional activation models for Windows Server 2016? (Choose all that apply.) a. Key Management Service b. Active Directory-Based Activation c. Certificate-Based Activation d. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation - ansKey Management Service Active Directory-Based Activation Automatic Virtual Machine Activation What PowerShell cmdlets will allow you to set the correct time, date, and time zone settings? (Choose all that apply.) a. Get-Date b. Set-TimeZone c. Set-Date d. Set-Time - ansSet-TimeZone Set-Date A network administrator can join a computer to a domain using which PowerShell cmdlet? a. Join-Domain b. Set-Domain c. Add-Computer d. netdom - ansAdd-Computer
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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Which of the following is a network share containing the files required to install roles, role services, and features on a Windows Server 2016 server? a. feature file store b. feature share c. cloud computing store d. role and features store - ansfeature file store What Windows Server 2016 edition is used for volume licensing customers in academic markets and allows multiple users to share one Windows computer, each with its own Windows environment settings? a. MultiPoint Premium Server b. Data Center c. Essentials d. Nano Server - ansData Center What is the approximate size of the system boot volume created by the Windows installer for Windows Server 2016? a. 500 MB b. 150 MB c. 50 MB d. 350 MB - ans350 MB What is the major benefit of using the Active Directory-Based Activation model? - ansADBA allows Windows computers that have a volume license key installed to activate when the computer joins the domain. Their is also no minimum number of server or client OS's that must be activated at one time. What particular command syntax will allow you to rename a computer currently named Pittsburgh, to the new name of Chicago? a. netdom renamecomputer Pittsburgh /Chicago b. netdom computerrename Pittsburgh /newname Chicago c. netdom renamecomputer Pittsburgh /newname:Chicago d. netdom renamecomputer Chicago /newname:Pittsburgh - ansnetdom renamecomputer Pittsburgh /newname:Chicago Which of the following situations would not be the best choice for a Server Core installation? (Choose all that apply.) a. The server is a single-role server providing DNS b. The server is the first in a network c. The server administrator is not well versed in using remote administration tools d. The server administrator is not well versed in using command-line programs - ansThe server is the first in a network The server administrator is not well versed in using remote administration tools The server administrator is not well versed in using command-line programs A properly licensed Datacenter Edition will give you the right to install an unlimited number of Windows Server or Hyper-V containers. True False - ansTrue
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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What Desired State Configuration mode is being utilized when servers can obtain their configurations from a central server by using standard web protocols? a. Push mode b. Pull mode c. Standard mode d. Manual mode - ansPull mode Server Core includes the COM1 Network Access firewall group and the firewall rules for all the MMC snap-ins. True False - ansFalse What PowerShell cmdlet can be used by an administrator to install a specific server role? a. Add-WindowsFeature b. Install-WindowsRole c. Install-WindowsFeature d. Add-WindowsRole - ansInstall-WindowsFeature The Role-based or feature-based installation is used to distribute components of the Remote Desktop Services role across different servers for use in a virtual desktop infrastructure. True False - ansFalse When using PowerShell, what cmdlet can be utilized to retrieve a list of services? a. Show-Services b. Get-Service c. List-Service d. Retrieve-services - ansGet-Service What bootstrap program is a WDS component that a WDS client downloads when performing a network boot? a. PXE b. wdsnbp.com c. WDS d. WIM - answdsnbp.com What component of the Desired State Configuration feature is responsible for sending and receiving configurations, applying configurations, monitoring, and reporting discrepancies between the desired state and the current state of a server? - anslocal configuration manager (LCM) How can an administrator mount an image to install a hot-fix containing an updated security patch? a. mount b. wim-open c. mount-image d. dism - ansdism What PowerShell cmdlet will start the WinRM service and configure the firewall for remote management? a. Configure-SMRemoting.exe b. Enable-PSRemoting c. Configure-PSRemoting d. winrm quickconfig - answinrm quickconfig
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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In the Add Roles and Features Wizard, the Server Roles window lists all the server roles you can currently install. True False - ansTrue If an administrator wants to create a new service, what PowerShell cmdlet should be used? - ansNew-Service What PowerShell command will install the WDS role, and by default install the necessary features and both role services? a. Get-WindowsFeature WDS b. Install-WindowsFeature - Roles WDS c. Install-WindowsFeature WDS d. Install-WindowsFeature WDS - Roles - ansInstall-WindowsFeature WDS What command will allow you to enable and disable features in an existing image? - ansThe dism.exe command What minimal operating system has only the services needed to access the network, work with files, copy disk images, and jump-start a Windows installation? a. Windows Preboot Environment b. Windows Preinstallation Environment c. Windows Image File d. Windows Network Boot - ansWindows Preinstallation Environment Which of the following is true about tiered storage? (Choose all that apply.) a. One SSD can be used with multiple virtual disks b. It supports automatic trim and unmap c. Storage tiers require fixed provisioning d. It combines the high capacity of SSDs with the speed of iSCSI disks - ansOne SSD can be used with multiple virtual disks Storage tiers require fixed provisioning If a disk pool becomes full, how does Windows Server 2016 respond? a. Affected volumes are marked as read-only until more space is provisioned b. More space is automatically provisioned from available drives in the primordial pool c. The server notifies all users with data in the disk pool to encourage data cleaning activities d. The disk pool is moved to an offline state until more physical storage is added - ansThe disk pool is moved to an offline state until more physical storage is added Data deduplication can be installed only on virtual machines. True False - ansFalse What authentication protocol can be used to allow an iSCSI target to authenticate to the iSCSI initiator? a. PEAP b. MSCHAPv c. Kerberos d. Reverse CHAP - ansReverse CHAP
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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a. The iSCSI LUN identifier b. The string "iqn" followed by a period c. The iSCSI target storage provider name d. The name of the iSCSI target or initiator - ansThe string "iqn" followed by a period The name of the iSCSI target or initiator An iSNS client is an iSCSI initiator running the iSNS protocol that discovers iSCSI targets. True False - ansTrue A storage pool is a collection of physical disks from which virtual disks and volumes are created and assigned dynamically. True False - ansTrue Which of the following represents a valid IQN? a. domain1.local.iqn:SAN.microsoft.com b. SAN.domain1:local.1911-05.iqn c. iqn.1911-05.com.microsoft:SAN.domain1.local d. 1911-05.com.iqn:domain1.local.SAN - ansiqn.1911-05.com.microsoft:SAN.domain1.local Before you enable data deduplication, what tool can you use to determine if data deduplication would benefit the tested volumes or network shares you specify? a. Diskspd.exe b. SCSIcli.exe c. DDPEval.exe d. DDVol.exe - ansDDPEval.exe Storage Replica supports local storage such as SAS or SATA disks, and iSCSI or Fibre Channel-based SAN storage. True False - ansTrue What PowerShell cmdlet will allow you to review the status of a running deduplication job? a. Get-DedupJob b. Get-DedupSchedule c. Get-DedupCurrent d. Enable-DedupJob - ansGet-DedupJob Which of the following is a reference ID to a logical drive used by the iSCSI initiator? a. iSCSI LUN b. IQN identifier c. iSCSI qualified name d. iSCSI target ID - ansiSCSI LUN By default, the Administrator role can perform all tasks in Hyper-V on all VMs. What would be an administrators first step if they wished to allow a junior administrator the ability to perform certain tasks in Hyper-V Manager without having broader administrative control? a. Assign the junior administrator the administrator role b. Assign a new task definition in Group Policy c. Create a new task group in Server Manager
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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d. Create a new task definition in Authorization Manager - ansCreate a new task definition in Authorization Manager Copying a virtual disk creates an new identical VM. True False - ansFalse Which of the following statements is true about allocating memory when you create a VM? (Choose all that apply.) a. When you create a VM, you cannot allocate memory until the VM is shutdown b. You can change the memory allocated to the VM you created only when the VM is running c. You can change the memory allocated to the VM you created later when the VM is shutdown d. When you create a VM, you can allocate memory from the host machine - ansYou can change the memory allocated to the VM you created later when the VM is shutdown When you create a VM, you can allocate memory from the host machine If a VM is given exclusive access to hardware devices on the host computer, what new Windows Server 2016 feature is being utilized? a. Discrete Device Assignment b. Selective Device Assignment c. Virtual Device Assignment d. Primary Device Allocation - ansDiscrete Device Assignment When Hyper-V is installed, the Hyper-V Manager console is available in Server Manager's Tools menu. True False - ansTrue Under what tab can resources from a virtual machine be redirected to the host computer? a. Resource Redirection b. VMBus Hardware c. Local Resources d. Host Connections - ansLocal Resources Generation 2 VMs must use an ISO file or a network boot to start an installation. True False - ansTrue Select the PowerShell command that will shut down and then restart the VM. a. Shutdown-VM b. VM-shutdown - Restart c. Restart-VM d. Shutdown-VM - Restart - ansRestart-VM VHD based disks are limited to what size? a. 512 GB b. 2 TB c. 1 TB d. 2 PB - ans2 TB
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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c. C:\paging d.C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Windows\Hyper-V - ansC:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Windows\Hyper-V Which of the following is a system memory architecture used in multiprocessor systems that allow processors to efficiently share memory? a. NUMA b. AVHD c. GUID d. UEFI - ansNUMA Which of the following choices is not a valid resource pool type? a. Power b. VHD c. Memory d. ISO - ansPower Which type of virtual hard disk uses a parent/child relationship? a. Shared b. Differencing c. Dynamically expanding d. Fixed size - ansDifferencing What two types of Storage QoS policies can be applied to individual virtual disk files or multiple virtual disk files? (Choose all that apply.) a. clustered b. dedicated c. expanded d. aggregated - ansdedicated aggregated A parent disk should be connected to a VM so it can be updated when needed. True False - ansFalse If you need your VM to access Fibre Channel storage directly, what type of adapter must be used? a. Channel Storage b. Virtual Fibre c. Fibre Channel d. Fibre Storage - ansFibre Channe The SR-IOV feature provides enhanced performance and requires support from the host NIC. True False - ansTrue Which of the following is a physical disk in the offline state that is attached to the host? a. pass-through disk b. temporary disk c. offline-host disk d. access disk - anspass-through disk
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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What virtual disk editing option will allow you to reduce the size of a dynamically expanding disk by eliminating the space used by deleted files? a. shrink b. merge c. compress d. compact - anscompact When VMQ is enabled on a vNIC, a dedicated queue is created for the vNIC on the physical NIC. True False - ansTrue If an administrator wants to extend an existing volume, what command should be used? a. gpart b. parted c. diskpart d. fdisk - ansdiskpart What specific type of network adapter should you choose if you are creating a generation 1 VM and performance is a priority? a. synthetic b. legacy c. static d. integrated - anssynthetic What virtual NIC hardware acceleration option enhances the virtual network adapter's performance by allowing a virtual adapter to bypass the virtual switch software on the parent partition? a. IPsec task offloading b. Virtual machine queue c. Single-root I/O virtualization d. Single-root buffering - ansSingle-root I/O virtualization When you create a virtual disk, which virtual disk format will support up to 64 TB and is the default option? a. VHD b. VHDx Set c. VHD Set d. VHDX - ansVHDX An internal virtual switch allows virtual machines and the host computer to communicate with one another while giving the VMs access to the physical network. True False - ansFalse Hyper-V considers one read I/O operation to be how much data? a. 32 KB b. 8 KB c. 4 KB d. 16 KB - ans8 KB When a new network adapter is connected to a virtual network, how is the adapter's MAC address assigned? a. automatically through the use of an APIPA address
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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In a failover cluster, what are the options for configuring the quorum model? (Choose all that apply.) a. No Majority: File Share Only b. Node Majority c. No quorum: Partitioning d. Node and File Share Majority - ansNode Majority Node and File Share Majority After a failover cluster is created, which of the following is a task to be performed when configuring the failover cluster? (Choose all that apply.) a. Configure the host ID b. Configure the cluster networks c. Configure the quorum model d. Configure port rules - ansConfigure the cluster networks Configure the quorum model You have created a failover cluster that must include SMB 3.0 file share support, and all cluster nodes must have read/write access to the shared storage. What type of storage should you use? a. Virtual volume pool b. Mirrored volume c. RAID 5 volume d. Cluster shared volume - ansCluster shared volume Server "A" is a member of an NLB cluster. Server "A" is scheduled for routine maintenance that requires the server to be taken offline. What option should you use to take the server offline while not disrupting any client requests currently in progress? a. Drainstop b. Stop c. Hibernate d. Suspend - ansDrainstop In and NLB cluster, which of the following is a valid cluster operation mode? (Choose all that apply.) a. Broadcast b. Multicast c. Unicast d. Network - ansMulticast Unicast What should you configure if you don't want a host to join an NLB cluster when the server starts and the host should not respond to remote NLB commands? a. Initial host state: Stopped b. Filtering mode: Suspended c. Initial host state: Suspended d. Filtering mode: Stopped - ansInitial host state: Suspended If you use two NICs in an NLB cluster, you should remove the dedicated IP address. True
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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False - ansTrue When you create a new cluster, what must be specified first that will participate in the new cluster? a. IP address b. host c. host priority d. network interface - anshost A quorum is shared storage used to store cluster configuration data. True False - ansFalse You're configuring a failover cluster and want a quorum configuration in which cluster quorum data is located in a shared folder on a server in another location. Which quorum configuration should you choose? a. No Majority: Disk Only b. Node and Disk Majority c. Node Majority d. Node and File Share Majority - ansNode and File Share Majority What quorum model utilizes Microsoft Azure and is used in stretch clusters? a. Node and Disk Majority b. Cloud witness c. Cloud Majority d. Node Majority - ansCloud witness Which of the following is a failover cluster failback option? (Choose all that apply.) a. Prevent failback b. Allow failback: Immediately c. Prevent failback: Only to this server d. Allow failback: Only to this server - ansAllow failback: Immediately Prevent failback You must configure port rules for each NLB cluster node. True False - ansFalse What optimization procedure can be performed when configuring a cluster network for CSV access? (Choose all that apply.) a. Use a single cluster network to access CSV traffic b. Configure a maximum bandwidth policy c. Disable cluster network communication on cluster networks that carry CSV traffic d. Use multiple cluster networks to access CSV traffic - ansDisable cluster network communication on cluster networks that carry CSV traffic Use multiple cluster networks to access CSV traffic Which of the following is a requirement for creating a failover cluster on a Windows server? (Choose all that apply.) a. At least 16 GB of RAM b. NICs that support NIC teaming c. Cluster-compatible storage technology
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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True False - ansTrue The configuration of a proxy server utilizes what port by default? a. 8080 b. 8530 c. 443 d. 80 - ans The Configure Automatic Updates policy allows you to turn automatic updates off in Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016. True False - ansFalse What are the default HTTP/HTTPS ports used by WSUS server for client access? a. 8080/ b. 80/ c. 8530/ d. 67/68 - ans8530/ What specific Windows Defender policy setting will allow you to disable scanning and real- time protection for specific files or all files in specified folders? a. Turn off Windows Defender b. Exclusions c. Custom Scan d. Real-time Protection - ansExclusions What specific option in WSUS enables you to approve specific types of updates for groups of computers automatically? a. Default Approvals b. Automatic Approvals c. Custom Approvals d. Advanced Approvals - ansAutomatic Approvals What Windows Update policy will allow WSUS clients to restart outside of active hours when an update requires a restart? a. Allow Windows Updates during active hours b. Turn on auto-restart for updates during active hours c. Defer Windows Updates during active hours d. Turn off auto-restart for updates during active hours - ansTurn off auto-restart for updates during active hours If you need to use a WSUS server and your client computers are not part of a domain, what can you use to configure clients separately? a. Group Policy on a domain controller b. Local Group Policy Editor c. WSUS Policy Editor d. Update Services console - ansLocal Group Policy Editor WSUS configuration data must be configured to use SQL Server Express. True False - ansFalse
165, MCSA, NOS 230, and TNE 255 Final Exams.
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Current Updated exam Guide 2025/2026.
When using a multiple-server deployment strategy with WSUS, the replica mode provides distributed administration requiring an administrator for each WSUS server to approve updates on that server. True False - ansFalse What options does an administrator have to configure Windows Defender? (Choose all that apply.) a. Windows Defender Policies Editor b. Group Policy c. PowerShell d. Windows Defender Console - ansGroup Policy PowerShell WSUS can be configured to approve Windows Defender updates automatically. True False - ansTrue Group policy or registry settings can be used to configure client-side targeting. True False - ansTrue When patch management is done with WSUS, administrators cannot control which product updates are allowed. True False - ansFalse Which of the following is a destination option for a scheduled backup using Windows Server Backup? (Choose all that apply.) a. Tape drive b. External hard drive c. DVD media d. Shared folder - ansExternal hard drive Shared folder In the Processes section of the Resource Monitor utility, what category is used to display how much physical memory is currently in use? a. Shareable b. Working set c. Private d. Commit - ansWorking set What specific types of backups will allow you to perform a system state recovery? (Choose all that apply.) a. System disk b. System state c. Full server d. Bare metal recovery - ansSystem state Full server
