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NUR 3463 (exam 2) ADULT HEALTH ACUTE CARE | GRADED
A | QUESTIONS AND ANSWER KEY PROVIDED
Chapter 21 cancer development.
The nurse is giving a group presentation on cancer prevention and recognition. Which statement by an older adult client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "Cigarette smoking always causes lung cancer." B "Taking multivitamins will prevent me from developing cancer." C "If I have only one shot of whiskey a day, I probably will not develop cancer." D "I need to report the pain going down my legs to my health care provider." ANS: D Pain in the back of the legs could indicate prostate cancer in an older man. Cigarette smoking is implicated in causing lung cancer and other types of cancer, but it does not always cause cancer. Investigation is ongoing about the efficacy of vitamins A and C in cancer prevention. Limiting alcohol to one drink per day is only one preventive measure.
The nurse is teaching a 47 - year-old woman about recommended screening practices for breast cancer. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "My mother and grandmother had breast cancer, so I am at risk." B "I get a mammogram every 2 years since I turned 30." C "A clinical breast examination is performed every month since I turned 40." D "A computed tomography (CT) scan will be done every year after I turn 50." ANS: A A strong family history of breast cancer indicates a risk for breast cancer. Annual rather than biannual screening may be indicated for a strong family history. An annual mammogram is performed after age 40 or in younger clients with a strong family history. The client may perform a self-breast examination monthly; a clinical examination by a health care provider is indicated annually. Annual CT breast scans after age 50 are not a current recommendation.
A 72 - year-old client recovering from lung cancer surgery asks the nurse to explain how she developed cancer when she has never smoked. Which factor may explain the possible cause? A A diagnosis of diabetes treated with insulin and diet B An exercise regimen of jogging 3 miles four times a week C A history of cardiac disease D Advancing age
ANS: D Advancing age is the single most important risk factor for cancer. As a person ages, immune protection decreases. Diabetes is not known to cause lung cancer. Regular exercise is not a risk factor for lung cancer, nor does having cardiac disease predispose a person to lung cancer.
The nurse reviews the chart of a client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM classification. Which explanation does the nurse offer when the client asks what the terminology means? A "Two lymph nodes are involved in this tumor of the glial cells, and another tumor is present." B "The brain tumor measures about 1 to 2 cm and shows no regional lymph nodes and no distant metastasis." C "This type of tumor in the brain is small with some lymph node involvement; another tumor is present somewhere else in your body." D "Glioma means this tumor is benign, so I will have to ask your health care provider the reason for the chemotherapy and radiation." ANS: B T1 means that the tumor is increasing in size to about 2 cm, and that no regional lymph nodes are present in the brain. M0 means that no distant metastasis has occurred. NX means that no regional lymph nodes can be assessed. A glioma is a benign tumor of the brain, but the client is diagnosed with a glioblastoma, which means a malignant tumor of the glial cells of the brain.
The nurse manager in a long-term care facility is developing a plan for primary and secondary prevention of colorectal cancer. Which tasks associated with the screening plan will be delegated to nursing assistants within the facility? A Testing of stool specimens for occult blood B Teaching about the importance of dietary fiber C Referring clients for colonoscopy procedures D Giving vitamin and mineral supplements ANS: A Testing of stool specimens for occult blood is done according to a standardized protocol and can be delegated to nursing assistants. Client education is within the scope of practice of the RN, not of the LPN or nursing assistant. Referral for further care is best performed by the RN. Administration of medications is beyond the nursing assistant's scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing personnel.
D Familial polyposis ANS: A Hepatitis B and C are risk factors for primary liver cancer. Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for the development of liver cancer. Consuming a diet high in animal fat may predispose a person to colon or breast cancer. Exposure to radon is a risk factor for lung cancer. Familial polyposis is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.
Which type of cancer has been associated with Down syndrome? A Breast cancer B Colorectal cancer C Malignant melanoma D Leukemia ANS: D Leukemia is associated with Down syndrome and Turner syndrome. Breast cancer is often found clustered in families, not in association with Down syndrome. Colorectal cancer is associated with familial polyposis. Malignant melanoma is associated with familial clustering and sun exposure.
The nurse is assessing a client with lung cancer. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate finding? A Easy bruising B Dyspnea C Night sweats D Chest wound ANS: B Dyspnea is a sign of lung cancer, as are cough, hoarseness, shortness of breath, bloody sputum, arm or chest pain, and dysphagia. Easy bruising is a nonspecific finding. Night sweats is a symptom of the lymphomas. A chest wound is not specific to lung cancer.
Which activity performed by the community health nurse best reflects primary prevention of cancer? A Assisting women to obtain free mammograms B Teaching a class on cancer prevention C Encouraging long-term smokers to get a chest x-ray
D Encouraging sexually active women to get annual Papanicolaou (Pap) smears ANS: B Primary prevention involves avoiding exposure to known causes of cancer; education assists clients with this strategy. Mammography is part of a secondary level of prevention, defined as screening for early detection. Chest x-ray is a method of detecting a cancer that is present—secondary prevention and early detection. A Pap smear is a means of detecting cervical cancer early—secondary prevention.
A 52 - year-old client relates to the nurse that she has never had a mammogram because she is terrified that she will have cancer. Which response by the nurse is therapeutic? A "Don't worry, most lumps are discovered by women during breast self-examination." B "Does anyone in your family have breast cancer?" C "Finding a cancer in the early stages increases the chance for cure." D "Have you noticed a lump or thickening in your breast?" ANS: C Providing truthful information addresses the client's concerns. Mammography can detect lumps smaller than those discovered by palpation. Asking about family history or symptoms is not therapeutic because it does not address the client's fear of cancer.
Which information must the organ transplant nurse emphasize before a client is discharged? A "Taking immunosuppressant medications increases your risk for cancer and the need for screenings." B "You are at increased risk for cancer when you reach 60 years of age." C "Immunosuppressant medications will decrease your risk for developing cancers." D "After 6 months, you may stop immunosuppressant medications, and your risk for cancer will be the same as that of the general population." ANS: A Use of immunosuppressant medications to prevent organ rejection increases the risk for cancer. Advanced age is a risk factor for all people, not just for organ transplant recipients. Immunosuppressant medications must be taken for the life of the organ; the risk for developing cancer remains.
The home health nurse is caring for a client who has a history of a kidney transplant and takes cyclosporine (Sandimmune) and prednisone (Deltasone) to prevent rejection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the transplant team? A Temperature of 96.6° F
Which statement about the process of malignant transformation is correct? A Mutation of genes is an irreversible event that always leads to cancer development in the initiation phase. B Insulin and estrogen enhance the division of an initiated cell during the promotion phase. C Tumors form when carcinogens invade the gene structure of the cell in the latency phase. D Nutrition of cancer cells is provided by tumor angiogenesis factor (TAF) in the promotion stage. ANS: D The promotion phase consists of progression when the blood supply changes from diffusion to TAF.Insulin and estrogen increase cell division. If cell division is halted, mutation of genes does not lead to cancer development in the initiation phase. In the initiation phase, carcinogens invade the DNA of the nucleus of a single cell. A 1-cm tumor consists of 1 billion cells. The latency phase occurs between initiation and tumor formation.
A client has a glioblastoma. The nurse begins to plan care for this client with which type of cancer? A Liver B Smooth muscle C Fatty tissue D Brain ANS: D The prefix "glio-" is used when cancers of the brain are named. The prefix "hepato-" is included when cancers of the liver are named. The prefix "leiomyo-" is included when cancers of smooth muscle are named. The prefix "lipo-" is included when cancers of fat or adipose tissue are named.
A client has a diagnosis of lung cancer. To which areas does the nurse anticipate that this client's tumor may metastasize? (Select all that apply.) A Brain B Bone C Lymph nodes D Kidneys E Liver ANS: A, B, C, E
Typical sites of metastasis of lung cancer include the brain, bone, liver, lymph nodes, and pancreas. Kidneys are not a typical site of lung cancer metastasis.
The nurse is conducting a community health education class on diet and cancer risk reduction. What should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) A Limit sodium intake. B Avoid beef and processed meats. C Increase consumption of whole grains. D Eat "colorful fruits and vegetables," including greens. E Avoid gas-producing vegetables such as cabbage. ANS: B, C, D Consuming bran and whole grains and avoiding red meat and processed foods such as lunchmeats can reduce cancer risk. Consuming foods high in vitamin A, including apricots, carrots, and leafy green and yellow vegetables, can also reduce cancer risk. Reducing sodium is helpful in the treatment of hypertension and heart and kidney failure; no evidence suggests that lowering of sodium intake decreases the incidence of cancer. Eating cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli, cauliflower, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage may actually reduce cancer risk.
What are the common cancers related to tobacco use? (Select all that apply.) A Cardiac cancer B Lung cancer C Cancer of the tongue D Skin cancer E Cancer of the larynx ANS: B, C, E Organs exposed to the carcinogens in tobacco (lungs, tongue, larynx) are the most likely to develop cancer. Oral cancer is also a risk with "smokeless" tobacco. The heart does not contain cells that divide; therefore, cardiac cancer is unlikely. Skin cancer generally is related to repeated sun and other ultraviolet exposure, such as that found with tanning beds.
The nurse includes which factors in teaching regarding the typical warning signs of cancer? (Select all that apply.) A Persistent constipation
c.Apply a different pressure-relieving device. d.Reinforce the overlay with extra cushions. ANS: C "Bottoming out," as evidenced by deep imprints in the mattress overlay, indicates that this device is not appropriate for this client, and a different device or strategy should be implemented to prevent pressure ulcer formation. A nurse cares for a client who has a deep wound that is being treated with a wet-to- damp dressing. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a.Change the dressing every 6 hours. b.Assess the wound bed once a day. c.Change the dressing when it is saturated. d.Contact the provider when the dressing leaks ANS: A Wet-to-damp dressings are changed every 4 to 6 hours to provide maximum débridement. The wound should be assessed each time the dressing is changed. Dry gauze dressings should be changed when the outer layer becomes saturated. Synthetic dressings can be left in place for extended periods of time but need to be changed if the seal breaks and the exudate leaks. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer on the right ankle. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Draw blood for albumin, prealbumin, and total protein. b.Prepare for and assist with obtaining a wound culture. c.Place the client in bed and instruct the client to elevate the foot. d.Assess the right leg for pulses, skin color, and temperature. ANS: D A client with an ulcer on the foot should be assessed for interruption in arterial flow to the area. This begins with the assessment of pulses and color and temperature of the skin. The nurse can also assess for pulses noninvasively with a Doppler flowmeter if unable to palpate with his or her fingers. Tests to determine nutritional status and risk assessment would be completed after the initial assessment is done. Wound cultures are done after it has been determined that drainage, odor, and other risks for infection are present. Elevation of the foot would impair the ability of arterial blood to flow to the area. After educating a caregiver of a home care client, a nurse assesses the caregiver's understanding. Which statement indicates that the caregiver needs additional education? a. "I can help him shift his position every hour when he sits in the chair." b. "If his tailbone is red and tender in the morning, I will massage it with baby oil." c."Applying lotion to his arms and legs every evening will decrease dryness." d."Drinking a nutritional supplement between meals will help maintain his weight." ANS: B Massage of reddened areas over bony prominences such as the coccyx, or tailbone, is
contraindicated because the pressure of the massage can cause damage to the skin and subcutaneous tissue layers. The other statements are appropriate for the care of a client at home After teaching a client who is at risk for the formation of pressure ulcers, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary choice by the client indicates a good understanding of the teaching? a.Low-fat diet with whole grains and cereals and vitamin supplements b.High-protein diet with vitamins and mineral supplements c.Vegetarian diet with nutritional supplements and fish oil capsules d.Low-fat, low-cholesterol, high-fiber, low-carbohydrate diet ANS: B The preferred diet is high in protein to assist in wound healing and prevention of new wounds. Fat is also needed to ensure formation of cell membranes, so any of the options with low fat would not be good choices. A vegetarian diet would not provide fat and high levels of protein. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse evaluate for a wound infection? a.Client with blood cultures pending b.Client who has thin, serous wound drainage c.Client with a white blood cell count of 23,000/mm d.Client whose wound has decreased in size ANS: C A client with an elevated white blood cell count should be evaluated for sources of infection. Pending cultures, thin drainage, and a decrease in wound size are not indications that the client may have an infection. A nurse who manages client placements prepares to place four clients on a medical- surgical unit. Which client should be placed in isolation awaiting possible diagnosis of infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus(MRSA)? a.Client admitted from a nursing home with furuncles and folliculitisb. b. Client with a leg cut and other trauma from a motorcycle crash c.Client with a rash noticed after participating in sporting events d.Client transferred from intensive care with an elevated white blood cell count ANS: A The client in long-term care and other communal environments is at high risk for MRSA. The presence of furuncles and folliculitis is also an indication that MRSA may be present. A client with an open wound from a motorcycle crash would have the potential to develop MRSA, but no signs are visible at present. The rash following participation in a sporting event could be caused by several different things. A client with an elevated white blood cell count has the potential for infection but should be at lower risk for MRSA than the client admitted from the communal environment. After teaching a client how to care for a furuncle in the axilla, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
ANS: B
Psoriasis is not a contagious disorder. The client does not have to worry about spreading the condition to others. It is a condition that has hereditary links, the patches will decrease in size with ultraviolet light exposure, and cortisone ointment should be applied directly to lesions to suppress cell division. A nurse performs a skin screening for a client who has numerous skin lesions. Which lesion does the nurse evaluate first? a.Beige freckles on the backs of both hands b.Irregular blue mole with white specks on the lower leg c.Large cluster of pustules in the right axilla d.Thick, reddened papules covered by white scales ANS: B This mole fits two of the criteria for being cancerous or precancerous: variation of color within one lesion, and an indistinct or irregular border. Melanoma is an invasive malignant disease with the potential for a fatal outcome. Freckles are a benign condition. Pustules could mean an infection, but it is more important to take care of the potentially cancerous lesion first. Psoriasis vulgaris manifests as thick reddened papules covered by white scales. This is a chronic disorder and is not the priority. A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed vancomycin (Vancocin) 500 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which action should the nurse take? a.Administer it over 30 minutes using an IV pump. b.Give the client diphenhydramine (Benadryl) before the drug. c.Assess the IV site at least every 2 hours for thrombophlebitis. d.Ensure that the client has increased oral intake during therapy. ANS: C Vancomycin is very irritating to the veins and can easily cause thrombophlebitis. This drug is given over at least 60 minutes; although it can cause histamine release (leading to "red man syndrome"), it is not customary to administer diphenhydramine before starting the infusion. Increasing oral intake is not specific to vancomycin therapy. A nurse assesses a young female client who is prescribed isotretinoin (Accutane). Which question should the nurse ask prior to starting this therapy? a. "Do you spend a great deal of time in the sun?" b. "Have you or any family members ever had skin cancer?" c. "Which method of contraception are you using?" d. "Do you drink alcoholic beverages?" ANS: C Isotretinoin has many side effects. It is a known teratogen and can cause severe birth defects. A pregnancy test is required before therapy is initiated, and strict birth control measures must be used during therapy. Sun exposure, alcohol ingestion, and family history of cancer are contraindications for isotretinoin.
A nurse cares for clients who have various skin infections. Which infection is paired with the correct pharmacologic treatment? a.Viral infection - Clindamycin (Cleocin) b.Bacterial infection - Acyclovir (Zovirax) c.Yeast infection - Linezolid (Zyvox) d.Fungal infection - Ketoconazole (Nizoral) ANS: D Ketoconazole is an antifungal. Clindamycin and linezolid are antibiotics. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug. A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has a wound and is prescribed home health care. Which information should the nurse include in the hand-off report to the home health nurse? a.Recent wound assessment, including size and appearance b.Insurance information for billing and coding purposes c.Complete health history and physical assessment findings d.Resources available to the client for wound care supplies ANS: A The hospital nurse should provide details about the wound, including size and appearance and any special wound needs, in a hand-off report to the home health nurse. Insurance information is important to the home health agency and manager, but this is not appropriate during this hand-off report. The nurse should report focused assessment findings instead of a complete health history and physical assessment. The home health nurse should work with the client to identify community resources. A nurse assesses a client who has psoriasis. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Don gloves and an isolation gown. b.Shake the client's hand and introduce self. c.Assess for signs and symptoms of infections. d.Ask the client if she might be pregnant. ANS: B Clients with psoriatic lesions are often self-conscious of their skin. The nurse should first provide direct contact and touch without gloves to establish a good report with the client. Psoriasis is not an infectious disease, nor is it contagious. The nurse would not need to wear gloves or an isolation gown. Obtaining a health history and assessing for an infection and pregnancy should be completed after establishing a report with the client. A nurse assesses a wife who is caring for her husband. She has a Braden Scale score of 9. Which question should the nurse include in this assessment? a. "Do you have a bedpan at home?" b. "How are you coping with providing this care?" c. "What are you doing to prevent pediculosis?" d. "Are you sharing a bed with your husband?" ANS: B A client with a Braden Scale score of 9 is at high risk for skin breakdown and requires
prealbumin, and lymphocyte counts all give information related to nutritional status. The prealbumin count is a more specific indicator of nutritional status than is the albumin count. The albumin and lymphocyte counts given are normal, but the prealbumin count is low. This puts the client at risk for inadequate wound healing, so the nurse should request a dietary consult. The other interventions do not address the information provided. A nurse evaluates the following data in a client's chart: 78 - year-old male with a past medical history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a chronic leg wound Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) Sotalol (Betapace) Vacuum-assisted wound closure (VAC) treatment to leg wound Based on this information, which action should the nurse take first? a.Assess the client's vital signs and initiate continuous telemetry monitoring. b.Contact the provider and express concerns related to the wound treatment prescribed. c.Consult the wound care nurse to apply the VAC device. d.Obtain a prescription for a low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements. ANS: B A client on anticoagulants is not a candidate for VAC because of the incidence of bleeding complications. The health care provider needs this information quickly to plan other therapy for the client's wound. The nurse should contact the wound care nurse after alternative orders for wound care are prescribed. Vital signs and telemetry monitoring is appropriate for a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and should be implemented as routine care for this client. A low-fat, high-protein diet with vitamin supplements will provide the client with necessary nutrients for wound healing but can be implemented after wound care, vital signs, and telemetry monitoring. A nurse manages wound care for clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client wounds are paired with the appropriate treatments? (Select all that apply.) a.Client with a left heel ulcer with slight necrosis - Whirlpool treatments b.Client with an eschar-covered sacral ulcer - Surgical débridement c.Client with a sunburn and erythema - Soaking in warm water for 20 minutes d.Client with urticaria - Wet-to-dry dressing changes every 6 hours e.Client with a sacral ulcer with purulent drainage - Transparent film dressing ANS: A, B Necrotic tissue should be removed so that healing can take place. Whirlpool treatment can gently remove the necrosis. A wound covered with eschar most likely needs surgical débridement. Warm water would not be recommended for a client with
erythema. A wet-to-dry dressing and a transparent film dressing are not appropriate for urticaria or pressure ulcers, respectively. A nurse plans care for a client who is immobile. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to prevent pressure sores? (Select all that apply.) a.Place a small pillow between bony surfaces. b.Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. c.Limit fluids and proteins in the diet. d.Use a lift sheet to assist with re-positioning. e.Re-position the client who is in a chair every 2 hours. f.Keep the client's heels off the bed surfaces. g.Use a rubber ring to decrease sacral pressure when up in the chair. ANS: A, D, F A small pillow decreases the risk for pressure between bony prominences, a lift sheet decreases friction and shear, and heels have poor circulation and are at high risk for pressure sores, so they should be kept off hard surfaces. Head-of-the-bed elevation greater than 30 degrees increases pressure on pelvic soft tissues. Fluids and proteins are important for maintaining tissue integrity. Clients should be repositioned every hour while sitting in a chair. A rubber ring impairs capillary blood flow, increasing the risk for a pressure sore. A nurse prepares to admit a client who has herpes zoster. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a.Prepare a room for reverse isolation. b.Assess staff for a history of or vaccination for chickenpox. c.Check the admission orders for analgesia. d.Choose a roommate who also is immune suppressed. e.Ensure that gloves are available in the room. ANS: B, C, E Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by reactivation of the same virus, varicella zoster, in clients who have previously had chickenpox. Anyone who has not had the disease or has not been vaccinated for it is at high risk for getting chickenpox. Herpes zoster is very painful and requires analgesia. Use of gloves and good handwashing are sufficient to prevent spread. It is best to put this client in a private room. Herpes zoster is a disease of immune suppression, so no one who is immune-suppressed should be in the same room. A nurse cares for older adult clients in a long-term acute care facility. Which interventions should the nurse implement to prevent skin breakdown in these clients? (Select all that apply.) a.Use a lift sheet when moving the client in bed. b.Avoid tape when applying dressings. c.Avoid whirlpool therapy. d.Use loose dressing on all wounds. e.Implement pressure-relieving devices. ANS: A, B, E
moist compresses and tepid baths with additives such as cornstarch. Topical corticosteroids are a pharmacologic intervention. A heating pad and a back rub with baby oil are not appropriate for this client and could increase inflammation and discomfort. Chapeter 20 A nurse works in an allergy clinic. What task performed by the nurse takes priority? a. Checking emergency equipment each morning b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained as needed c. Providing educational materials in several languages d. Teaching clients how to manage their allergies ANS: A All actions are appropriate for this nurse; however, client safety is the priority. The nurse should ensure that emergency equipment is available and in good working order and that sufficient supplies of emergency medications are on hand as the priority responsibility. When it is appropriate for a client to give informed consent, the nurse ensures the signed forms are on the chart. Providing educational materials in several languages is consistent with holistic care. Teaching is always a major responsibility of all nurses. A client is in the preoperative holding area prior to surgery. The nurse notes that the client has allergies to avocados and strawberries. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess that the client has been NPO as directed. b. Communicate this information with dietary staff. c. Document the information in the client's chart. d. Ensure the information is relayed to the surgical team. ANS: D A client with allergies to avocados, strawberries, bananas, or nuts has a higher risk of latex allergy. The nurse should ensure that the surgical staff is aware of this so they can provide a latex-free environment. Ensuring the client's NPO status is important for a client having surgery but is not directly related to the risk of latex allergy. Dietary allergies will be communicated when a diet order is placed. Documentation should be thorough but does not take priority. The nurse is caring for clients on the medical-surgical unit. What action by the nurse will help prevent a client from having a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Administering steroids for severe serum sickness b. Correctly identifying the client prior to a blood transfusion c. Keeping the client free of the offending agent d. Providing a latex-free environment for the client ANS: B A classic example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction is a blood transfusion reaction. These can be prevented by correctly identifying the client and cross-checking the unit of blood to be administered. Serum sickness is a type III reaction. Avoidance therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for a type IV hypersensitivity. Latex allergies are a type I hypersensitivity
A nurse suspects a client has serum sickness. What laboratory result would the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Blood urea nitrogen: 12 mg/dL b. Creatinine: 3.2 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 8.2 mg/dL d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm ANS: B The creatinine is high, possibly indicating the client has serum sickness nephritis. Blood urea nitrogen and white blood cell count are both normal. Hemoglobin is not related. A client calls the clinic to report exposure to poison ivy and an itchy rash that is not helped with over-the-counter antihistamines. What response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Antihistamines do not help poison ivy." b. "There are different antihistamines to try." c. "You should be seen in the clinic right away." d. "You will need to take some IV steroids." ANS: A Since histamine is not the mediator of a type IV reaction such as with poison ivy, antihistamines will not provide relief. The nurse should educate the client about this. The client does not need to be seen right away. The client may or may not need steroids; they may be given either IV or orally A client with Sjögren's syndrome reports dry skin, eyes, mouth, and vagina. What nonpharmacologic comfort measure does the nurse suggest? a. Frequent eyedrops b. Home humidifier c. Strong moisturizer d. Tear duct plugs ANS: B A humidifier will help relieve many of the client's Sjögren's syndrome symptoms. Eyedrops and tear duct plugs only affect the eyes, and moisturizer will only help the skin. A client is receiving plasmapheresis as treatment for Goodpasture's syndrome. When planning care, the nurse places highest priority on interventions for which client problem? a. Reduced physical activity related to the disease's effects on the lungs b. Inadequate family coping related to the client's hospitalization c. Inadequate knowledge related to the plasmapheresis process d. Potential for infection related to the site for organism invasion ANS: D Physical diagnoses take priority over psychosocial diagnoses, so inadequate family coping and inadequate knowledge are not the priority. The client has a potential for infection because plasmapheresis is an invasive procedure. Reduced activity is manifested by changes in vital signs, oxygenation, or electrocardiogram, and/or reports of chest pain or shortness of breath. There is no information in the question to indicate that the client is experiencing reduced physical activity.
