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Material Type: Exam; Class: 1016 - Linear Algebra I; Subject: Mathematics & Statistics; University: Rochester Institute of Technology; Term: Spring 2009;
Typology: Exams
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Linear Algebra I 1016-
Test 1 Solution
 and^ v^ =
. Find proj^ uv, the projection of^ v^ on^ u.
We compute:
proj (^) uv =
u Ā· v u Ā· u
u =
x + 2y + 3w = 2 2 x + 4y + 2z + 4w = 6 x + 2y + 2z + w = 4.
We compute a row echelon form for the augmented matrix of the system: 

We use the free variables y and w to find the pivot variables: z = 1 + w and x = 2 ā 2 y ā 3 w. So the complete solution is
   
x y z w
 +^ y
 +^ w
First, we compute u Ā· v:
16 = (u + 3v) Ā· (u + 3v) = u Ā· u + 6u Ā· v + 9v Ā· v = 1 + 6u Ā· v + 18,
so u Ā· v = ā 1 /2. This implies that
cos Īø =
u Ā· v ||u||||v||
The angle we are looking for is Īø = arccos(ā 1 /
Use Gauss elimination to create a row echelon form:
R2+R 1 ,R 3 ā 2 R 1 ,R 4 ā 3 R 1 ;
R3+R 2 ,R4+7R 2 / 4 ;
As we can see, the rank is 2.
This shows that if a ā 2 b + c 6 = 0, then we have a pivot in the last column, and then the system is inconsistent, so for these vectors in R^3 there is no solution x, y, z, w meaning that these vectors are not in the span of the listed ones (this happens for
example for the vector
). The answer is no.
ax + y + z = 1 x + ay + z = 1 x + y + az = 1
For what values of a does the system fail to have solutions, and for what values of a are there infinitely many solutions?
Consider the augmented matrix of the system and create a row echelon form: 

a 1 1 1 1 a 1 1 1 1 1 a
1 1 a 1 1 a 1 1 a 1 1 1
 R^2 āR^1 ;,R^3 āaR^1
1 1 a 1 0 a ā 1 1 ā a 0 0 1 ā a 1 ā a^2 1 ā a
1 1 a 1 0 a ā 1 1 ā a 0 0 0 2 ā a ā a^2 1 ā a
From here we can see immediately that if a = 1 , then this matrix turns into 

which shows the system will have infinitely many solutions in this case, in the form 

x y z
 (^) + y
 (^) + z
Now if a 6 = 1, then we can divide the second and third row by 1 ā a and we obtain the row echelon form (^) 

1 1 a 1 0 ā 1 1 0 0 0 2 + a 1
This will show that if a = ā2 , then we have no solutions , and if a 6 = ā 2 (and of
course a 6 = 1), then we have the unique solution
 
x y z
1 /(a + 2) 1 /(a + 2) 1 /(a + 2)
a 1 + a 2 +... + an n
a^21 + a^22 +... + a^2 n n
When are the two sides equal?
Use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for the vectors
u =
a 1 a 2 .. . an
and v =
1 /n 1 /n .. . 1 /n
The two sides are equal when a 1 = a 2 = a 3 =... = an ā„ 0.
Suppose that c 1 (v ā u) + c 2 (kw ā v) + c 3 (u ā w) = 0.
This means that
(c 1 ā c 2 )v + (c 3 ā c 1 )u + (kc 2 ā c 3 )w = 0.
We know that u, v and w are linearly independent, so this means that
c 1 ā c 2 = 0 āc 1 + c 3 = 0 kc 2 ā c 3 = 0.