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KIN 3535 Popadopoulos Exam 1 Practice Guide Test, Exams of Kinesiology

Louisiana State University at AlexandriaKinesiology

KIN 3535 Popadopoulos Exam 1 Practice Guide Test

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/24/2025

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KIN 3535 Popadopoulos Exam 1 Practice Guide
Test
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1. any waking behavior characterized by an energy expenditure d1.5 METs
while sitting, reclining, or lying posture.: sendentary behavior
2. the amount of O2 consumed while sitting at rest and is equal to 3.5mL
O2/min/kg, the standardized method of expressing the absolute intensity of
various physical activities: 1 MET
3. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes
affect all-cause mortality?: strong
4. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes
affect CVD mortality?: strong
5. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes
affect incident T2D?: strong
6. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes
affect incident CVD?: strong
7. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes
affect incident cancer?: moderate
8. regular physical activity causes in cardiovascular and respiratory
function.: improvement
9. regular physical activity causes maximal oxygen uptake resulting
from both central and peripheral adaptations.: increased
10. regular physical activity causes minute ventilation at a given ab-
solute submaximal intensity.: decreased
11. regular physical activity causes myocardial oxygen cost for a given
absolute submaximal intensity: decreased
12. regular physical activity causes heart rate and bloop pressure at a
given submaximal intensity.: decreased
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Test

  1. any waking behavior characterized by an energy expenditure d1.5 METs while sitting, reclining, or lying posture.: sendentary behavior
  2. the amount of O2 consumed while sitting at rest and is equal to 3.5mL O2/min/kg, the standardized method of expressing the absolute intensity of various physical activities: 1 MET
  3. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes affect all-cause mortality?: strong
  4. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes affect CVD mortality?: strong
  5. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes affect incident T2D?: strong
  6. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes affect incident CVD?: strong
  7. what is the level of evidence that sedentary behavior and adverse outcomes affect incident cancer?: moderate
  8. regular physical activity causes in cardiovascular and respiratory function.: improvement
  9. regular physical activity causes maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations.: increased
  10. regular physical activity causes minute ventilation at a given ab- solute submaximal intensity.: decreased
  11. regular physical activity causes myocardial oxygen cost for a given absolute submaximal intensity: decreased
  12. regular physical activity causes heart rate and bloop pressure at a given submaximal intensity.: decreased

Test

  1. regular physical activity causes capillary density in skeletal muscle- : increased
  2. regular physical activity causes exercise threshold for the accumu- lation of lactate in the blood: increased
  3. regular physical activity causes exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs or symptoms: increased
  4. regular physical activity causes in cardiovascular disease risk fac- tors: reduction
  5. regular physical activity causes resing sustolic and diastolic pres- sure: reduced
  6. regular physical activity causes serum HDL cholesterol and de- creased serum triglycerides: increased
  7. regular physical activity causes total body fat and intra-abdominal fat: reduced

Test

and sport activities: enhanced

  1. regular physical activity causes risk of falls and injuries from falls in older individuals: reduced
  2. regular physical activity causes or mitigation of functional limita- tions in older adults: prevention
  3. regular physical activity causes for many chronic diseases in older adults: effective therapy
  4. adults should do at least min to min/week of moderate in- tensity, or min to /weef of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity: 150- 75 - 150
  5. additional health benefits with > min of moderate-intensity physical activity/week: 300

Test

  1. activities of moderate or greater intenisty on 2 or more days/week- : muscle strengthening
  2. risk of MSK injury is high in physical activities that involve between participants or with the ground: direct contact
  3. the inexpected natural death from a cardiac cause within a short time period, generally d1 hour from the onset of symptoms, in a person without any prior condition that would appear fatal: sudden cardiac death
  4. is sudden cardiac death more prevelant in men or women?: women
  5. the risk of a cardiac event during exercise testing is low(~6 cardiac events per _____ tests): 10,
  6. the gold standard to measure an intervention's effect by random assign- ment of individuals to an intervention or a control arm: randomized controlled trial (RCT)
  7. subjects are randomly allocated to study arms where each arm consists of a sequence of two or moree treatments given consecutively: randomized crossover trial
  8. pilot trials are trials done before a main trial, designed to support the development of a future definitive RCT. used to evaluatee feasibility to the intervention: pilot-RCT
  9. investogator controls allocation (not random): uncontrolled/non-randomized trial
  10. exposure is assessed at baseline and subjects are followed over time to examine the occurance of an outcome: prospective cohort study
  11. outcome has already occured. data are collected from medical charts or clinical databases: retrospective cohort study

Test

5 study outcomes are assessed at the end of the 2nd phase

  1. each participant serves as their own control: randomized crossover trial
  2. which type of study does this describe:
  3. performed prior to a definitive RCT
  4. assesses the feasibility of main trial and estimates the effect for sample size calculation
  5. sample size is smaller compared to the sample needed for a definitive trial
  6. inexpensive
  7. many funding agencies require this type of data to fund a definitive trial: pilot RCT
  8. which type of study does this describe:
  9. data are collected prospectively
  10. exposure status at baseline
  11. investigators follow participants over time and information on several vari- ables including outcome variables are collected
  12. outcomes of interest
  13. databases, clinical records: prospective cohort studies
  14. in cohort studies, the outcome of interest has already occured, and researchers look back in time to establish associations between exposure status and the out come of interest: retrospective
  15. backgrounf info/expert opinion < case series/case reports < case control studies < cohort studies < RCT < systematic review < meta-analysis: the heirarchy of evidence
  16. a review that uses a systemic approach to answer a specific research question using existing research studies: systematic reviews

Test

  1. step 1 of systematic reviews: framing the : research question
  2. step 2 of systematic reviews: identify criteria: inclusion / exclusion
  3. step 3 of systematic reviews: identify relevant : work
  4. step 4 of systematic reviews: data: extract
  5. step 5 of systematic reviews: assess the of the studies: quality
  6. step 6 of systematic reviews: synthesize the into meta-analysis or narrative synthesis: evidence
  7. step 7 of systematic reviews: the results: interpret
  8. a mathematical synthesis of the results of two or more primary studies that addressed the same hypothesis in the same way: meta-analysis
  9. meta-analysis odds ratio or risk ratio for : binary outcomes
  10. meta-analysis mean difference or standardized mean difference for - : continuous outcomes
  11. meta-analysis hazard ratio for : time-to-event ratio

Test

  1. risk of MI per mmol/L increase in LDL: 1.
  2. risk of MI with a mmol/L or higher LDL vs 3.0mmol/L: 5.
  3. what are the 4 causes of dyslypidemia?: hereditary unhealthy diet alcohol smoking
  4. desirable levels for Non-HDL-C: < _____ 130
  5. desirable levels for LHDL-C: < _____ 100
  6. lowlevels for HDL-C: < (men); < ____ (women): 40 50
  7. normal levels for triglycerides: < _____ 150
  8. what is the ratio of adults in the US that have prediabetes?: 1/

Test

  1. what are the 3 tests for diabetes?: hemoglobin A1c fasting blood glucose glucose tolerance test
  2. measures average blood sugar over the past 3 months: e6.5%: hemoglobin A1c
  3. measures blood sugar after an overnight fast: 126 mg/dL (7mmol/L): fasting blood glucose
  4. measures blood sugar before and after you drink a liquid that contains glucose: e200 mg/dL (11mmol/L): glucose tolerance test
  5. resting heart rate ranges from ~ to _____ bpm: 50 - 100
  6. in an individual with capacity, RHR can reach lower values: high aerobic capacity
  7. correlation between life expectancy and RHR: inverse
  8. age, sex, circadian cycle, BP, physical activity, mental stress, smoking, alcohol, caffeine, excess body weight, medications all influence : RHR
  9. 4 techniques to measure RHR: pulse palpation auscultation with a sethoscope HR monitor ECG
  10. normal BP : < /< ______120/
  11. elevated BP: - /< --------- 120 - 129/
  12. high BP (hypertension stage 1) : - / - : 130 - 139/80- 89
  13. high BP (hypertension stage 2) : or higher / or higher: 140/
  14. high BP (hypertension stage 3) : higher than /higher than : - 180/

Test

  1. what is step 2 of a comprehensive health assessment?: resting measure- ments
  2. what is step 3 of a comprehensive health assessment?: body composition including circumference measurements
  3. what is step 4 of a comprehensive health assessment?: assessment of cardiorespiratory fitness
  4. what is step 5 of a comprehensive health assessment?: assessment of muscular fitness
  5. what is step 6 of a comprehensive health assessment?: assessment of flexibility
  6. sufficient between tests should be allowed for HR and BP recov- ery: time
  7. lab safety includes of emergencies and an : prevention emergency care plan
  8. prevention of emergencies:
  • include proper strategies prior to exercise testing
  • use appropriate exercise and
  • participants prior to exercise test: screening tests and equipment educate
  1. emergency care plan
  • have a emergency plan
  • lab personnel should know and review the plan
  • the plan must allow for of unstable patients by a specific route for rapid transfer to hospital facilities: written

Test

quarterly evacuations

  1. an exercise lab should have which emergency equipment?: crash cart oxygen AED EAP
  2. incident reports must be done to occurrence of accidents: docu- ment
  3. the capacity of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to skeletal muscle mitochondria for energy production needed during physical activity: cardiorespiratory fitness
  4. low levels of CRF have been associated with a markedly risk of premature death from all causes and specifically from cardiovascular disease- : increased

Test

crease

  1. VO2max criteria: HR d bpm or d % of the age-predicted HRmax (220-age): 10 5
  2. VO2max criteria: blood lactate concentration > _____ mm: 8
  3. VO2max criteria: respiratory exchange ratio (RER) > or _____ : 1.
  5. VO2max criteria: borg RPE e (1-10) or e (6-20): 9 18
  6. what is the most accurate objective indicator of effort?: RER
  7. incremental test to volitional exhaustion, individual breathes through a mask or mouthpiece, expired air is collected, mode: treatmill, cycle ergometer, other.: cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET)
  8. volume of oxygen consumed (L/min): absolute VO2max

Test

  1. volume of oxygen consumed relative to body weight (mL/kg/min): relative VO2max
  2. a test is AKA a GXT, an exercise stress test, or an exercise tolerance test.: clinical exercise
  3. if the GXT includes analysis of , it is termed a CPET or metabolic exercise test: expired gases
  4. what are the indications for a clinical GXT?: diagnostic prognostic evaluation of the physiologic response to exercise
  5. the most common diagnostic indication is the assessment of symptoms suggestive of : ischemic heart disease (IHD)
  6. in addition to prognostic and diagnostic utility, clinical exercise testing is useful in informing an individual's ability to return to work following a as well as developing an ExRx for those with known heart disease: CV event
  7. permanent or temporary restriction until condition is treated, stable, or past acute phase: absolute contraindications
  8. highly variable, value of exercise testing and/or program may exceed risk, activity may be restricted, medical supervision of exercise testing / program may be desirable: relative contraindications
  9. absolute contraindications to maximal exercise testing:
  10. acute MI within days
  11. ongoing unstable
  12. uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia with compromise
  13. active
  14. symptomatic severe aortic ______ 2

Test

  1. relative contraindications to maximal exercise testing:
  2. known obstructive main coronary artery stenosis
  3. moderate to severe with uncertain relationship to symptoms
  5. acquired advanced or complete : left aortic stenosis tachyarrhythmias heart block
  6. relative contraindications to maximal exercise testing:
  7. recent or TIA
  8. impairment with limited ability to cooperate
  9. resting hypertension with SBP > mmHg or DBP > mmHg
  10. uncorrected medical conditions, such as significant , important imbalance, and : stroke mental 200; anemia, electrolyte, hyperthyroidism
  11. can clinical exercise test be safely supervised by properly trained non-physician health professionals?: yes
  12. -risk patients require that a physician be physically present during exercise testing, and the physician responsible for supervising the test must meet established standards: high compentency
  13. should be individualized, must include warm-up and cool-down: protocol selection

Test

  1. is the most widely ised exercise protocol (modified for clinical populations): bruce treadmill
  2. records the heart's electrical activity and monitors cardiac changes: elec- trocardiogram (ECG)
  3. Atrial depolarization: P wave
  4. ventricular depolarization: QRS depolarization
  5. ventricular repolarization: T wave
  6. HR increases in a fashion with increases in workload: linear
  7. failure to achieve e85% of age-predicted HRpeak with maximal effort indicated (increased risk of morbidity and mortality): chronotropic incom- petence
  8. failire of the HR to decrease by at least beats during the first minute or by the end of the second minute of postexercise recovery