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Industrial Security Oversight Credential (ISOC) Exam 2025 Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales These questions reflect updated guidance from NISPOM, DoD Manuals, and security clearance processes (latest 2025 format)
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These questions reflect updated guidance from NISPOM, DoD Manuals, and security clearance processes (latest 2025 format).
1. What is the primary purpose of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)? A. To manage military contracts B. To ensure classified information is protected C. To safeguard national security information in industry D. To establish federal employment procedures
2. Which document serves as the foundation for the NISP? A. DoD 5200.2-R B. Executive Order 12829 C. Intelligence Reform Act D. FAR Subpart 4.
3. What does FCL stand for in the context of industrial security? A. Federal Contractual License B. Facility Compliance List C. Facility Clearance D. Final Clearance Level
4. Who is responsible for implementing the security program at a cleared contractor facility? A. CEO B. DSS Agent C. Facility Security Officer (FSO) D. Contract Officer
5. Which agency is primarily responsible for administering the NISP? A. Department of Energy B. Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) C. Department of Justice D. Federal Bureau of Investigation
6. What is the DD Form 441 used for? A. Security Agreement between the government and contractor
D. Upon request only
10. What must a contractor do if they discover a security violation? A. Wait for the next audit B. Immediately report it to DCSA and mitigate C. Report it to the CEO D. Keep it internal unless loss occurs
11. What is the purpose of a Visit Authorization Letter (VAL)? A. Request a background check B. Notify employee absence C. Grant temporary classified access for visitors D. Record visitor names
12. What is an example of classified information? A. Employee timesheets B. Unmarked corporate emails C. Top Secret project plans marked accordingly D. Corporate logos
13. Which marking is correct for classified documents? A. CLASSIFIED B. SECRET C. PROTECTED D. OFFICIAL USE ONLY
14. What is the maximum duration for interim clearance? A. Indefinite until final is granted or denied B. 6 months C. 1 year D. It does not expire
15. What action should be taken if an employee leaves the company? A. Deactivate their badge only B. Give them access if they return C. Terminate classified access and debrief them D. Nothing
19. Which form initiates a background investigation for a clearance? A. DD Form 254 B. SF- 86 C. OF- 612 D. SF- 312
20. How often must the Insider Threat Training be conducted? A. Every 6 months B. As needed C. Annually D. One time only
21. What is the purpose of the DD Form 254? A. To record a classified mailing B. To request a facility clearance C. To provide security guidance on a classified contract D. To authorize a visit to a cleared facility
22. How should Top Secret documents be transmitted? A. Regular mail B. Email with encryption C. Approved courier or secure electronic system D. Fax
23. What must be done before destroying classified material? A. Inform the original classifier B. Wait for the contract to end C. Use an approved destruction method D. Submit a destruction request
24. What is required for an employee to access classified information? A. Signature of the supervisor B. Monthly report C. Need-to-know and proper clearance D. Public trust position
25. What must happen if a classified document is found unsecured? A. Destroy it immediately B. Secure it and report the incident
C. Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency (DCSA) D. CIA
29. What is Continuous Evaluation (CE)? A. Annual training on security B. Ongoing review of cleared individuals outside of periodic reinvestigations C. A new type of clearance D. Monthly tests of knowledge
30. Who must sign the SF-312 Non-Disclosure Agreement? A. CEO B. FSO C. The individual granted access to classified information D. Contracting Officer
31. What is the main purpose of the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)? A. Detail hiring procedures B. Outline procedures for safeguarding classified information
C. Describe business contracts D. Provide financial audits
32. What does a Security Violation involve? A. Working unauthorized overtime B. Failure to protect classified information C. Asking a coworker about pay D. Missing a staff meeting
33. What is the required level of physical protection for storing Top Secret information? A. File cabinet with key B. Locked drawer C. GSA-approved container with IDS and response D. Password-protected file
34. What is the proper marking for classified emails? A. No marking needed B. Add "Confidential" in the subject only C. Banner markings and classification at the top and bottom D. Use different font
38. What is the responsibility of the Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM)? A. Oversee training B. Destroy documents C. Manage classified IT systems security D. Host site visits
39. How often must cleared employees receive security refresher training? A. Every 3 years B. Annually C. Upon hire only D. Monthly
40. What is an example of an adverse information report? A. Late to work B. Arrest for DUI C. Failed a work test D. Vacation request
41. What must be done before using a classified system? A. Update virus definitions B. Ensure accreditation and user training C. Add user to contact list D. Rename the server
42. What is the standard form for classified material control logs? A. SF- 703 B. SF- 85 C. SF- 702 D. DD- 441
43. What is a Security Infraction? A. Same as a violation B. Failure to follow procedures that does not result in a compromise C. A felony D. Any type of loss
47. Who sets security classification guidance for a program? A. FSO B. Original Classification Authority (OCA) C. DCSA D. Contract Manager
48. How long must the SF-312 be retained? A. 3 years B. 70 years or for the life of the individual C. 1 year D. Until contract ends
49. Who is responsible for determining whether a subcontractor requires access to classified information? A. The government agency B. The ISSM C. The prime contractor D. The general counsel
50. What is the first action when foreign ownership, control, or influence (FOCI) is suspected? A. Ignore unless confirmed
B. Remove the employee C. Notify DCSA immediately D. Conduct internal audit
51. What type of security clearance is typically required to access SCI (Sensitive Compartmented Information)? A. Secret B. Confidential C. Top Secret with SCI eligibility D. Interim Secret
52. What does the term "classification by compilation" mean? A. Using outdated classifications B. Unclassified data, when combined, reveals classified info C. Top Secret data hidden in code D. Mislabeling documents
53. How long is an Interim Secret clearance valid? A. 1 year
C. Facility Security Officer (FSO) D. Janitorial staff
57. When must security education training for new employees be completed? A. Within 30 days B. After 6 months C. Before gaining access to classified info D. Before first paycheck
58. What is an OPSEC concern? A. Unauthorized email B. Personnel security C. Revealing critical information through unclassified channels D. Document mislabeling
59. Which of the following is a valid method for transmitting Secret documents? A. Regular email B. FedEx C. Registered U.S. mail with return receipt (within U.S.) D. Interoffice memo
60. Which color border is used for the SF-704 (Top Secret cover sheet)? A. Green B. Orange C. Blue D. Red
61. What is the purpose of Two-Person Integrity (TPI)? A. HR control B. Watch supervisor C. Prevent a single individual from accessing classified info alone D. Speed up clearance processing
62. What is a courier letter? A. Mail delivery instructions B. Authorization to hand-carry classified material C. Shipping schedule D. Password list