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IICRC AMRT FINAL EXAM NEWEST COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS & DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED
A+
Aflatoxin - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the carcinogenic mycotoxin produced by Aspergillus
antimicrobial static agent - CORRECT ANSWER >>> an agent that is incorporated or applied
to a product or surface to inhibit microbial growth
assessment - CORRECT ANSWER >>> inspection performed by the Indoor Environmental
Professional (IEP) to formulate written recommendations to the mold remediator.
bacteriostat - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a product that suppresses bacterial growth
biocide - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a chemical or physical agent that is designed to kill or
inactivate one or more group(s) of organisms
best practice - CORRECT ANSWER >>> method or technique that has consistently shown
results superior to those achieved with other means, and that is used as a benchmark
biostat - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a product that suppresses living organisms
can - CORRECT ANSWER >>> term used to signify an ability or possibility to apply a
procedure but is not a component of the industry standard
Condition 1 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> an indoor environment that may have settled spores,
fungal fragments or traces of actual growth whose identity, location, and quantity are reflective of a normal fungal ecology for a similar indoor environment
Condition 2 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> an indoor environment that is primarily contaminated
with settled spores or fungal fragments that were dispersed directly or indirectly from a Condition 3 area, and which may have traces of actual growth
Condition 3 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> an indoor environment contaminated with the
presence of actual mold growth, associated spores, and fungal fragments. Actual growth includes growth that is active or dormant, visible or hidden
contaminant - CORRECT ANSWER >>> any physical, chemical, biological, or radioactive
substance that can have an adverse effect on the air, water, soil, or any interior or exterior surface
cross-contamination - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the transport of contaminants in the air from
a contaminated work area to an unaffected area
disinfectant - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a biocide that significantly reduces or kills up to
99.99% of recognized human pathogens and may kill some bacterial spores
controlled removal - CORRECT ANSWER >>> the process of removing contaminated
materials in a manner that minimizes the spread and aerosolization of contaminants and debris
Equilibrium Relative Humidity (ERH) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> moisture boundary layer;
relative humidity taken at a material's surface
mold - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a microscopic organism, may also be referred to as fungi or
fungus capable of producing toxins
mold abatement - CORRECT ANSWER >>> act of removal, cleaning, sanitizing, or surface
disinfection of mold, mold containment, and waste handling of mold and materials used to remove mold from surfaces by an individual
mold remediation - CORRECT ANSWER >>> conducting the business of removal, cleaning,
sanitizing, or surface disinfection of mold, mold containment, and waste handling of mold and materials used to remove mold from surfaces by a business enterprise, including but not limited to, sole proprietorships
mycelium - CORRECT ANSWER >>> mass of hyphae that is the reproductive part of the mold
mycotoxins - CORRECT ANSWER >>> toxic substances produced by fungi
non-viable - CORRECT ANSWER >>> fungal organism incapable of germination
ozone - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a gaseous phase biocide that is toxic to humans and is not
recommended for microbial remediation
pathogenic - CORRECT ANSWER >>> disease causing
post-remediation verification - CORRECT ANSWER >>> inspection performed by the
Indoor Environmental Professional (IEP) to determine the successful completion of the work plan
recommended - CORRECT ANSWER >>> pertaining to procedure or practice that is advised
or suggested to be performed
remediator - CORRECT ANSWER >>> refers to the remediation contractor or remediation
worker
sanitizer - CORRECT ANSWER >>> a biocide that significantly reduces the number of
vegetative environmental bacteria of public health importance
respirable - CORRECT ANSWER >>> can be deeply inhaled into lungs, smaller than 5 microns
settled spores - CORRECT ANSWER >>> spores that have landed on a surface and not
actively growing
shall - CORRECT ANSWER >>> pertaining to a procedure or practice that is mandatory due to
regulation or natural law
should - CORRECT ANSWER >>> pertaining to a procedure or practice that is the "standard
of care" to be followed
spore - CORRECT ANSWER >>> seed-like structure of the mold
standard of care - CORRECT ANSWER >>> practices that are common to the reasonably
prudent members of the trade who are recognized in the industry as qualified and competent
Viruses Bacteria
Parasites - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 3 primary sewage biohazards:
E. coli Salmonella Shigella
Pseudomonas - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 4 common gram negative bacteria found in sewage:
16% + - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What MC can support mold growth?
20% + - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What MC can support wood decaying fungi?
none - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Which federal agency governs indoor air quality?
Temperature Light pH Nutrients Oxygen
Water - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Factors that affect mold growth:
Cellulose - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Which nutrient does mold grow best on?
Fusarium Rhizopus
Stachybotrys chartarum - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Types of Hydrophilic mold:
Penicillium Aspergillus Cladosporium Epicoccum
Alternia - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Types of Mesophilic mold:
Aspergillus
Penicillium - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Types of Xerophilic mold:
Dermal Inhalation Ingestion
Injection - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 4 ways we can be exposed to bioaerosols:
the virus attaches itself to a specific host cell, injects its genetic material (RNA), and turns the
host cell into a virus factory that can produce millions of the virus -^ CORRECT ANSWER
>>> How do viruses replicate?
inhalation - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the common route of entry for mold exposure?
ingestion - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the common route of entry for exposure to
category 3 water?
48 - 72 hours - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the time frame for Aspergillus to colonize?
2.0 - 20.0 microns - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the size of most mold spores found in
indoor water damaged environments?
histoplasm capsulation - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What are the molds associated with bird
and bat droppings? Elderly Children Pregnant women
Immunocompromised - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 4 populations of individuals considered to
be at higher risk for exposure to mold and bacteria: Determine work plan Reduction of liability
Identify Condition 2 areas - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Reasons for initial sampling:
Verify effectiveness of remediation Determine if area can be reoccupied
Resolve liability issues - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Reasons for post-sampling:
air sampling is preferred, often used as indicator for further inspection - CORRECT ANSWER
>>> Best sample method of choice for verification and why?
to identify species - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the benefit of collecting viable air
samples?
Concentration Temperature pH Contact time Application requirements
Material compatibility - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 6 limitations of antimicrobial biocides:
Sanitizers Disinfectants
Sterilants - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 3 types of antimicrobial biocides:
antimicrobial static agent - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What product is referred to as a "bound
product"?
biocide is inactivated - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the result of applying antimicrobials
to organic materials? Biostat Bacteriostat
Fungistat - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Types of antimicrobial static agents:
Applied to cleaned and non-porous surface - CORRECT ANSWER >>> How is the efficacy of
antimicrobials determined?
Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act - oversee EPA registered products -
CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is FIFRA?
release of toxic gases - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the concern of mixing bleach with
ammonia?
clean and dry environment - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the best preventative for mold
contamination?
follow manufacturer's instructions - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What should the remediator do
prior to using any tool or equipment?
up to 3-4 times per day during removal, and 1 time during cleaning - CORRECT ANSWER
>>> How often should the pre-filters be changed on an AFD?
replace while on - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the process the remediator should follow
when changing the pre-filters on the AFD?
reduction of CFM - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What are the concerns when attaching
accessories or ducting to a NAM?
DOP testing - CORRECT ANSWER >>> testing procedure that can be used to check the
efficiency of the HEPA filter
laser particulate counter - CORRECT ANSWER >>> tool used to perform the DOP testing
employer's - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Who's duty is it to monitor the success of a PPE
program?
50 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the protection factor for full-face respirator?
10 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the protection factor for a half-face respirator?
Disposable masks Half-face respirators Full-face respirators
Powered air purifying respirators (PAPR) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Which respirators offer no
protection against oxygen deficient environments?
powered air purifying respirator (PAPR) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Which respirator offers a
positive pressure inside the mask via a battery pack? Insufficient oxygen Extreme temperatures High concentration of dust/fumes
High concentration of gas/vapors - CORRECT ANSWER >>> When are air-supplied respirators
required?
23.5% - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the oxygen level that is exceeded to create an
oxygen-rich environment?
positive and negative seal check - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What must workers do each time
they don their respirators? Inspect Clean Dry
Store - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What are the maintenance steps that must be done to a half
or full-face respirator?
particles (HEPA) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What does the "P100" of the respirator cartridge
remove?
odors and MVOCs - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What does the organic vapor cartridge remove?
P1 disposable suits - CORRECT ANSWER >>> lightweight suits that hold out up to 90% of dry
particulates; does not protect against wet environments
P2 disposable suits - CORRECT ANSWER >>> lightweight suits that hold up to 100% of dry
particulates; does not protect against wet environments
P3 disposable suits - CORRECT ANSWER >>> resistant-coated suit that holds up to 100% of
dry particulates and protects against wet and highly contaminated environments
respirator - to prevent potential inhalation exposure - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the
last piece of PPE to be removed and why? Suit
negative air pressure - CORRECT ANSWER >>> pressure differential created between work
area and surrounding space to prevent contaminants from leaving the work zone
exit/decon chamber - CORRECT ANSWER >>> constructed for entry into and exit from a
remediation containment area
- 0.02wc to - 0.028wc OR
- 5pa to - 7pa - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Desired lower pressure to achieve and maintain inside containment chamber:
flammable and toxic - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What are the risks of using spray adhesive?
will not raise fire load - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Why should a technician use a fire retardant
polyethylene for containment?
medium - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What slip factor is recommended for 6-mil poly?
to return to Condition 1 - CORRECT ANSWER >>> What is the goal for mold remediation?
Source Local
Full - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 3 types of containment:
Provide for the health & safety Document the condition & work processes
Control the contaminant Physically remove contamination
Correct the moisture problem - CORRECT ANSWER >>> 5 principles of mold remediation
stated in the S520 Introduction: to address relatively small or limited areas of mold growth; usually less than 10 SF of total
growth including visible and inspected - CORRECT ANSWER >>> When is source
containment used? to address moderate amounts of mold growth; approximately 10-100 SF of total growth
including visible and inspected - CORRECT ANSWER >>> When is local containment used?
to address significant and/or extensive mold growth that is present or suspected; usually
greater than 100 SF in a single room - CORRECT ANSWER >>> When is full containment
used?
determined by the work plan (job and site specific) - CORRECT ANSWER >>> How is the
number of decon/exit chambers determined? Strength Integrity Adequate materials Size of NAM
Supplemental air filtration - CORRECT ANSWER >>> Factors determining maximum pressure
that a containment chamber can be placed under:
