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ICVA NAVLE Test 3 Questions and
Answers.
Which test would be a best indicator of moody sweet clover toxicity in a horse? - \Prothrombin time (PT). Sweet clover can contain a number of fungi that create dicumarol, a warfarin-like toxin. It inhibits vit K and interferes with synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X. Because factor VII has a shortest half life of these factors, it will be depleted first. Factor VII is incvolved in the extrinsic coagulation pathway and would therefore be elevated first after ingestion of sweet clover. PT is a measure of the extrinsic pathway (and common). PTT is a measure of intrinsic and common. TT is a measure of the final steps of coagulation taking fibrinogen to fibrin. Cattle are affected by moody sweet clover toxicity more frequently than horses. You arrive to a canine breeding kennel to help them with an outbreak of diarrhea that appears to be of the malabsorptive and maldigestive kind. You perform several fecal smears to help find a diagnosis. On several of the smears you notice a protozoal organism swimming around in a "falling leaf" motion when you are at 40x. These organisms also have a ventral concave disc, are pear shaped, binucleate, and are approximately 15 x 8 micrometers. What is the organism? - \Giardia. Young, immunodeficiency, and grouped animals tend to show signs. This question provides a classical description of the motile trophozoite. Remember, the cyst is the active mode, not the trophozoite. T. Foetus has an undulating membrane which help differentiate from giardia along with the 3-4 anterior flagella. Additionally, it isn't commonly found in dogs. When looking for isospora, you would expect to see them on a fecal flotation in the form of oocyte. Cryptosporidium would be round and slightly smaller than a red blood cell. Acid-fast of fluorescent antibody stains are performed on direct fecal smears to help find these small organisms. During a busy day in the summer, you have a walk-in appointment of a ferret that has been attacked by a skunk. After taking a history, you learn from the owner that this ferret is unvaccinated. What should you do? - \Euthanise immedietly and submit for testing. If O declines, vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 6 months. (Dogs/cats quarantine for 4 months) The direct fluorescent antibody test detects viral antigens and should be tested on two locations from the brain (brainstem and cerebellum) and is the test of choice for rabies dx.
If ferret was current on vx, booster immediately and have the owners observe closely for 45 days ( same as dogs and cats). If O is able to provide proof the ferret had been previously vx but is overdue, guidelines direct the booster immediately and keep the ferret under o observation for 45days. A 3 year old male Weimaraner presents to your clinic with complaints of anorexia, weight loss, and progressive exercise intolerance and dyspnea with a dry, hacking cough. On physical exam, he is cachectic (BCS 2/9), febrile (103.8 F, 39.9 C), and has diffuse peripheral lymphadenopathy. Thoracic radiographs show a diffuse nodular interstitial pattern in all lung fields. Cytology of a lymph node aspirate shows suppurative inflammation. What is the MOST likely diagnosis to explain all of these findings? - \Blastomycosis (Blastomyces dermatiditis) Diagnoses is sometimes easy by visualisation of organisms in aspirates or skin scrapings, but isn't the usual case. BRoad-based budding yeast. The next step is to obtain a DDx by transtracheal wash or bronchoalveolar lavage. A 10-year old female spayed Siamese cat presents for a new lump the owner found a month ago. She was spayed last year before she was adopted from the shelter. The owner states that the lump has grown over the last month, and it doesn't seem to bother the cat. On exam, the 2 cm lump is located on the left 2nd mammary gland, and no other lumps are noted. The lump is freely moveable, and chest radiographs are clear. What is the chance that this tumor is malignant? - \70-90% of all feline mammary tumors are malignant. Spaying a cat before 6 months of age reduces the risk for mammary tumors by 7 fold. The statistics for dogs is a 50:50 chance of malignancy for a single mammary mass. An 8 week old Beefmaster calf presents with a 2 day history of rapid and labored respiration, depression, salivation, nasal and ocular discharge, and a "honking" cough. On physical exam, there are no signs of sepsis, but the calf is tachypneic, dyspneic and febrile. Crackles are audible throughout the lung fields. What is your top differential? - \Bovine respiratory syncytial virus. The key is being able to make this your top differential is noting the "honking" cough, dyspnoea, tachypnoea, and that the calf isn't septic. Pulmonary lesions include severe oedema and emphysema. Treatment is usually supportive and antibiotics are given to protect from secondary bacterial infection. The viscera from a group of 100 kg pigs are presented at a slaughter facility. The pigs were raised in a semi-outdoor management farm system with groups of 30-100 kg pigs kept on the same site. At slaughter, multifocal fibrotic lesions are seen in their livers and noticeable nematodes are present within the small intestine. You perform a fecal flotation on a fresh sample from the younger pigs. The results are shown in the image below. What treatment or management recommendation is most appropriate for this problem? -
The disease is more common in purebred cats, cats that have been in Catherine's or shelters, most often affect young, though older can succumb to the disease. Theory is that coronavirus (which most cats are exposed to) mutates in some cats and leads to FIP. Diagnosis can be difficult and results of coronavirus antibody titres have to be interpreted in light of clinical symptoms, since most cats have been exposed to coronavirus. Clinical signs: general malaise, inappetence, weight loss, fever, icterus, abdo effusion, pleural effusion, neuro signs, uveitis, organometallic hyperglobinaemia and an inflammatory leukogram are often noted on bloodwork. The sterile effusions are typically sticky and clear to straw-coloured or yellow-tinged and contain high protein. Granulomas or sometimes enlarged reactive lymph nodes can be palpated in the mesentery on physical exam. The clinical sympotomes listed in this question can also be seen with an intestinal perforation, but usually would be bacteria on symbology of the abdo fluid. Which of these antibiotics is safest for use in guinea pigs? Enrofloxacin Bacitracin Streptomycin Ampicillin - \Enrofloxacin. Guinea pigs are v sensitive to many antibiotics, including penicillin, ampicillin, bacitracin, lincomycin, vancomycin, erythromycin, and clindamycin. Streptomycin can be directly toxic and result in death and should never be used in this species. This 2 year-old female spayed Siamese cat presents for further evaluation of the masses seen in the image. The patient was recently rescued and there is no other history available. On physical examination, there are no overt abnormalities appreciated other than the masses visualized. A fine needle aspirate is performed and consistent with a mast cell tumor. Given the breed, the histiocytic subtype is suspected. What is the most appropriate treatment plan if the owners don't have unlimited funds? - \Monitor as the lesions will most likely spontaneously regress. Contrary to cutaneous mast cell tumour in dogs, young Siamese cats (<4yo) with the histiocytic subtype of mast cell neoplasia will typically have their tumours spontaneously regress. Therefore, as long as the patient is not suffering it is reasonable to wait for these to resolve on their own. In general it is safe to say that feline mast cell neoplasia is much less aggressive than in dogs. Cutaneous mast cell tumours do not need aggressive surgical margins that are typically recommended for Grade 1 or 2 canine mast cell tumours. Follow up radiation therapy is rarely indicated. You are called to a swine breeding herd that is experiencing some abortions. On arrival you find out that there are 285 sows in the herd and 5 of them aborted overnight. Two days ago 2 other sows aborted. You are suspicious of Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS). The herd has not used any PRRS vaccines for the past
18 months. All aborted fetuses have been discarded by the time you arrive. What diagnostic workup should you do? - \Only test the 7 aborted sows for PRRS virus via serum PCR. PRRS causes abortions shortly after infection and therefore the sows should be viraemia at the time of abortion. Your testing should be focused on the aborted animals. Random sampling is used when establishing the herds status, in this case you are focused specifically on the status of the aborted animals. Antibody production takes time and therefore likely not present in the sows at the time of the abortion. What are the features of the Tetralogy of Fallot? - \Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, dextrapositioned aorta, pulmonic valve stenosis. Clinical signs: bilateral basilar murmurs, right sided heart failure, cyanosis, secondary bacterial endocarditis. A 9-year old male neutered Rottweiler presents to you with a one-month history of lameness of the right forelimb. The dog is painful on palpation of the proximal humerus. Which is the most likely differential diagnosis to discuss with the owner? - \Primary bone tumour. An 8-year old male castrated cat presents to your clinic for a decreased appetite and slight weight loss over the past 2 months. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild cranial organomegaly detected on abdominal palpation. You perform diagnostic tests and find the following results: Complete blood count shows: Hematocrit - 26% (30-45 %) White blood cell count- 18,155/ul (5,500-19,500/ul) Neutrophils- 12,100/ul (2,500-12,500/ul) Lymphocytes- 5,055/ul (1,500-7,000/ul) Monocytes- 300/ul (0-900/ul) Eosinophils- 700/ul (0-800/ul) Platelets- 270,000/ul (300,000-800,000/ul) Serum chemistry shows: Creatinine- 1.2 mg/dl (0.9-2.2 mg/dl) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)- 22 mg/dl (19-34 mg/dl) Glucose- 138 mg/dl (60-120 mg/dl) Albumin= 3.4 g/dl (2.8-3.9 g/dl) Globulin= 6.2 g/dl (2.6-5.1 g/dl) ALP- 85 IU/L (0-45 IU/L) ALT- 214 IU/L (25-97 IU/L) GGT- 9 IU/L (0-6 IU/L) Total bilirubin- 0.9 mg/dl (0-0.1 mg - \Good, mean survival time is great than 2 years.
At what age will you see permanent third incisor in wear (not age of eruption) in a cow?
\Approx 3.5 years. Rule of thumb: 1.5, 2.5, 3.5, 4.5. A 7-year old female spayed Doberman Pinscher presents for lethargy and anorexia. Your physical exam reveals a 3/6 left systolic heart murmur and a rectal temperature of 103.5F (39.7 C). Echocardiography shows a vegetative lesion on a mitral valve leaflet. If conventional blood cultures are negative, which of the following organisms should be considered? - \Bartonella sp. 0most commonly reported organisms recovered in animals with endocarditis are S aureus, Strep sp, corynebacterium sp, Psudomonas aeruginosa, Ersipelothrix, E colic Bartonella This 8-week old domestic short hair cat presented with an acute onset of severe chemosis as seen in the photo. The cat is systemically healthy otherwise with no oral or corneal lesions. What disease most commonly causes severe chemosis in the absence of other systemic signs? - \Chlamydophila felis. The upper respiratory tract pathogen does not cause oral ulcers in cats. What agent is a cat with oral ulcers most likely affected with? - \Calicivirus. The upper resp tract pathogen is known for causing oral ulcers in cats along with nasal discharge, chemosis, and other upper resp signs. You have diagnosed proliferative enteritis in a swine herd and the owners wish to undertake a control program. Which of the following is most effective at controlling the disease? - \Vaccination against lawsonia intracellularis. A modified live L intracellularis vaccine is marketed in the US and has proven to be effective. Treatment with tiamulin for 14days in the water or feed is also helpful. What is the daily normal water consumption for an average 450kg horse? - \30l. Horses consume about 50-70ml water/kg/day. This will vary somewhat with temp, diet, etc. Normal urine production is 15-30ml/kg/day. A 2yo brown Swiss with abomasal torsion is likely to have what abnormality? - \Hypochloraemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia. As a result of torsion, affected animals sequester HCl in the abomasum, get hypochloraemia and metabolic alkalosis. Additionally, animals become dehydrated and try to maintain adequate blood pressure by conserving sodium through renal mechanisms. Because there is an alkalosis, potassium is sequestered even more than usual in cells leading to hypokalaemia.
Normally the kidneys excretes some potassium because of the need to maintain an equal number of anions and cations in the urine. When insufficient potassium is available, in order to reabsorbs sodium to maintain blood pressure, hydrogen ions are excreted rather than potassium. This results in acidic urine at the same time as metabolic alkalosis, a conditions known as paradoxical aciduria. In the U.S., swine tuberculosis is most commonly associated with exposure to materials (feed, water, bedding) contaminated by what animals? - \Birds. What is the most likely complication associated with the post-anaesthetic recovery of a dog receiving clotrimazole? (Up nose) - \Laryngeal inflammation. In pic there is a sino-nasal fungal infection (likely aspergillosis) present. The patient is undergoing a procedure to install clotrimazole into the frontal sinus and nasal cavity following debridement of the fungal plaques and irrigation with saline. The swabs shown in the pic were placed in external bare to ensure the clotrimazole in place for 10-15 min. Laryngeal inflammation following intubation is the most common complication seen with this procedure. A 12-year old Quarter Horse gelding is presented for progressively worsening clinical signs of ataxia, intermittent head pressing and prolonged recumbency over the last month. The heart rate is modestly elevated (HR-48 beats/min) but the temperature and respiratory rate are within normal limits. The CBC and biochemistry profile are relatively unremarkable except for mild elevations in the CK and AST. Based on the suspicion of neurologic disease, you then collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the lumbosacral space yielding the following results: CSF fluid analysis: Total nucleated cell count: 86 cells/microliter (reference interval < 6 cells/microliter) Protein: 118 mg/dL (reference interval 50-80 mg/dL) Cytology: 14% neutrophils, 57% lymphocytes, 20% macrophages, 7% eosinophils, and 2% basophils. Based on the above information, what is the most likely cause? - \Verminous encephalomyelitis (Halicephalobus deletrix). Abberent migration of helminth or fly larvae through the CNS of horses is uncommon, but is reported cause of neuro disease. Ccausitive organisms include Halicephalobus deletrix, Draschia megastoma, Hypodera, strongyles day nematodes, as well as others. Wobbler syndrome is usually observed in younger horses (<5yo) and typically does not cause changes in CSF. Equine herpes myeloencephalopathy is a consideration, but clinical signs are typically related to hind-limb paresis, bladder dysfunction, and faecal recent action along with
Multiple pigs from a herd are presented for lameness. After taking a history and performing physical exams, you determine the cause of the lameness to be osteochondrosis dissecans. What should you tell the owner? - \Cross-breeding thepigs will not necessarily change the incidence of the disease in the herd. The farmer should consider culling the affected animals and replacing them. OCD commonly occurs in major breeds of commercial pigs so cross-breeding does not eliminate the occurrence of the disease. Fast growing, well muscles, larger pigs seem to be affected most commonly. Clinical lameness usually occurs 4-8months of age. Drugs may alleviate signs but will only mask the incidence of the disease. A 3-year old male castrated DSH cat presents to you for pica. The owner reports that the cat chews and eats various fabrics including the owner's garments. The owner reports that this behavior seemed to begin shortly after her daughter was born. Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) which you could prescribe as part of the treatment for the cat's anxiety-related behavioral problems? - \Fluoxetine (PRozac) is an anti-depressant and SSRI that can be used to treat cats for anxiety related disorders at a dose of 0.5mg/kg orally SID. Which of the following is accurate concerning maintenance of pregnancy in domestic mammals? -All choices listed are accurate -In cows, the latter half of pregnancy is maintained by ovarian and placental progesterone Your Answer -In horses, the ovarian source of progesterone peaks relatively early in gestation and is gradually replaced by placental sources of progesterone -In pigs, the pregnancy is dependent upon ovarian sources of progesterone throughout gestation -None of the choices listed are accurate -In sheep, the placenta takes over progesterone production early in gestation, i.e. by 50 days - \All choices are accurate. Progesterone is essential for maintenance of pregnancy in all domestic mammals. Some species (sheep, horse, cow) get progesterone support from the CL/corpora lutes initiallym that progesterone production is later augmented (cow) or assumed entirely by placental sources (sheep, horses). The pig is dependant on ovarian progesterone throughout her 113-114 day gestation. Taurine deficiency in cats causes what abnormality in the eye? - \Central retinal degeneration. This can be inconjunction with cardiomyopathy. This is because photoreceptors contain large amounts of taurine, and cats can't synthesis it. Classic lesion is an elliptical area of hyperreflectivity starting at the area of the centralis dorsolateral to the optic disk that progresses to a horizontal bad and eventually can involve the entire fundus.
If you have 25% mannitol and you wish to give 500 mg per kg to a 15 kg dog, how much should you give? - \30ml. 25% = 250 mg/ml strength at a dose of 500 mg/kg, the total dose for a 15kg dog would be 7500mg, which divided by 250 mg/ml equals 30mls. You are examining the eyes of a dog and see that he has a positive menace response and dazzle reflex is visual but lacks a palpebral reflex. Where does he have a lesion? - \CN V. This animal has no visual defects, as evidenced by his menace and dazzle, which rules out lesions in CN II or visual cortex. The normal menace response indicates that CN VII is normal. Lack of palpebral then indicates a deficit for which CN V is responsible. Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish "wart-like" nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease? - \Mosquito control. The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbour infective virus for greater than a month. In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish, wart like lesions on unfeathered ares (head, legs, vent). The lesions heal in about two weeks. illthrift, decreased egg production, and regarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. The wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerated or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality. A diagnosis is ally based on flock history and presence of these lesions. This is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine. Disease control is be accomplished by preventative vaccine as sanitation alone can;t prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity. A 4-year old FS indoor/outdoor cat presents for two seizure episodes over the last few days. Physical exam reveals aqueous flare in both eyes and a temperature of 103.5F. There are no other cats in the household, and the owner is feeding a raw meat diet. A comprehensive blood panel is submitted and results are as follows: FeLV/FIV/FCV negative, Heartworm antibody negative, Toxoplasma IgM 1:1024, IgG 1:512, Cryptococcus negative, neutrophils 28,000/uL (2,500-12,500/ul), chemistries all WNL. The cat is current on vaccinations including Rabies. Which of the following medications is indicated? - \Clindamycin. The neuro symptoms and uveitis in this cat are being caused by T Gondi. Cats are definitive hosts. Likely was infected by eating raw meat or infected prey. An elevated IgM tiger shows active infection with organisms. Most common symptoms are lethargy, decreased appetite and fever. The disease can cause D+, upper resp signs, inflammation of the eyes and neuro disease.
Carnivores can also contract plague when they eat infected rodents. Clinical symptoms can occur in 1-2 days in cats, but in humans the incubation period can be up to 8days. The tentative diagnosis can be made with a grams stain cytology of infected material, such as a draining lesion of this cat. Yersinia is a gram negative bacterium and has a bipolar safety pin appearance. DDx is based on culture. Must contact the state vet or CDC before taking samples.samples must be collected and submitted under strict guidelines to prevent spread of disease. Plague is highly zoonotic and bubonic, septicaemia, pneumonic, and meninges forms can occur. Early treatment is critical for survival. antibiotic treatment early in the course of the disease can greatly improve prognosis. Any persons exposed at all to this cat should seek treatment. This animal will likely be euthanised. The state veterinarian will give instructions on how to best handle the animal. Which of the following toxic plants results in acute death? Milkweed Bracken fern Moldy sweet clover Ragwort - \Milkweed. This is a cardiac glycoside which can cause acute clinical signs and death. Bracken fern causes bone marrow depression in ruminants and can take up to 3 months to show clinical signs. Moldy sweet clover leads to coagulopathy via Vt K antagonism after consumption over long periods of tie. Ragwort is a pyrrolizidine alkaloid which causes liver disease after several months of consumption.
