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Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations in Chapter one? A. Propriety or for-profit. B. Not-for-profit. C. Government-supported. D. Individual healthcare. - correct answers D. Individual healthcare. Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility. B. Mostly female staff. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open. - correct answers C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of Directors. B. Department leaders. C. Assistant administrators. D. Vice presidents. - correct answers A. Board of Directors. Which of the following statements best describes employees?
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A. Medical staff contracted by the facility. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. C. Volunteers who donate their time. D. Contracted persons. - correct answers B. All staff directly employed by the facility. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? A. Strong and effective. B. A program that works in a small part of the facility. C. Generally effective. D. Strong and simple. - correct answers A. Strong and effective. How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged. B. Encouraged. C. Encouraged but monitored. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism. - correct answers D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism.
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D. All of the above. - correct answers D. All of the above. Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility. D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. - correct answers A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians. B. Nursing staff. C. Attending physician. D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so. - correct answers D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.
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Which of the following is not an example of an external costumer? A. Patients. B. Vendors. C. Employees. D. Regulatory agencies. - correct answers C. Employees. Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? A. Clean uniform. B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. C. Well cared for uniform. D. Shined footwear. - correct answers B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? A. Bad attitude. B. Dishonesty. C. Impoliteness. D. Confidence. - correct answers D. Confidence.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction. B. Less stress and hassle. C. Trying to impress your supervisor. D. More job success. - correct answers C. Trying to impress your supervisor. Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though though the customer,s wants were not met. C. To make the customer think no one cares about the concern raised by the customer. D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling. - correct answers A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer. B. Internal customer.
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C. Non-paying external customer. D. Anyone with whom you interact. - correct answers D. Anyone with whom you interact. Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use while providing good customer service. A. Acknowledge the customer's needs. B. Use inappropriate body language. C. Provide alternatives. D. Say thank you. - correct answers B. Use inappropriate body language. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years. B. Every six months. C. Every year. D. Monthly. - correct answers C. Every year. Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
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To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources. B. Clearly defined boundaries. C. Access to people who know. D. Clearly defined purposes and goal. E. all of the above. - correct answers E. all of the above. What is the definition of crowd control? A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies. B. Allowing First Amendment activities. C. Allowing Demonstrations. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. - correct answers D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming. B. Ending. C. Norming. D. Storming - correct answers B. Ending.
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Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals. B. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. D. Any of the above. - correct answers D. Any of the above. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community. B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships. C. Improving communications. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. - correct answers D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous. B. Routine. C. Conspicuous. D. Foot. - correct answers C. Conspicuous.
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What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. only patient information of interest to the security officer. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. D. None of the above. - correct answers C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. A. Leave their offices, go out the closest door, and assemble in the street. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed. D. Stay inside their office and out of the away. - correct answers B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them.
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Security officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients. B. Visitors. C. Employees. D. Physicians. E. All the above. - correct answers E. All the above. Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communication skills. B. Compassion. C. Ability to speak loudly. D. Ability to express care and understanding. - correct answers C. Ability to speak loudly. When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rush to the affected unit and interview the parent. B. Call the National center for Missing and Exploited Children. C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department.
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B. Use sarcasim. C. Treat the visitor with respect. D. Show empathy. - correct answers B. Use sarcasm. Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)" C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers. (ASHE). - correct answers A. The Joint Commission. Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal. B. Observes and reports. C. Enters the area with the police. D. Leaves the area unattended. - correct answers B. Observes and reports. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life.
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B. Expense. C. Discomfort and restrictiveness. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury. - correct answers D. Avoiding or minimizing injury. Which ofthe following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight. B. Portable radio. C. Handcuffs. D. CPR pocket mask. - correct answers D. CPR pocket mask. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait periods. B. Calm atmosphere. C. Food selection. D. Attire. - correct answers C. Food selection. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable. B. Must be prudent.
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C. 89 percent. D. 94 percent. - correct answers D. 94 percent. Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS) B. National Fire Protection Agency. (NFPA) C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) D. Department of Public Health. - correct answers A. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety. (IAHSS) Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS course. A. Basic certification for the healthcare security officer. B. Advanced certification for the healthcare security officer. C. Supervisory certification for healthcare security personal. D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). - correct answers D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). When speaking with a patient, visitor or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech? A. Timing, velocity and character. B. Tenor, vibration, and cannon.
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C. Tone, variation, and cadence. D. Tempo, variation and candor. - correct answers C. Tone, variation, and cadence. What is the key factor in tactical deployment? A. Availability of other officers. B. Waiting for supervisor. C. Control of distance. D. Time. - correct answers C. Control of distance. During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual. A. 2 to 4 feet. B. 4 to 6 feet. C. 6 to 10 feet. D. 10 feet or more. - correct answers B. 4 to 6 feet. What is your primary goal on using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject. B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting.
