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HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions with 100% complete solutions., Exams of Nursing

American University of Health SciencesNursing

HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions with 100% complete solutions. HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions with 100% complete solutions. HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions with 100% complete solutions.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/06/2025

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HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions
with 100% complete solutions.
1. What is the correct definition of dysplasia?
A. Increased number of cells
B. Cells of abnormal appearance
C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location
D. Abnormal proliferation
E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Cells of abnormal
appearance
2. What is the correct definition of neoplasia?
A. Increased number of cells
B. Cells of abnormal appearance
C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location
D. Abnormal proliferation
E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER-D. Abnormal proliferation
3. What is the correct definition of hyperplasia?
A. Increased number of cells
B. Cells of abnormal appearance
C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location
D. Abnormal proliferation
E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Increased number of cells
4. Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissues?
A. Carcinoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Leukemia
E. Anaplastic - CORRECT ANSWER-A. Carcinoma
5. What is the likely type of cancer for a tumor originating in the muscles?
A. Carcinoma
B. Sarcoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Leukemia
E. Anaplastic - CORRECT ANSWER-B. Sarcoma
6. What is the likely type of cancer for a tumor originating in the lung?
A. Carcinoma
B. Sarcoma
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Download HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions with 100% complete solutions. and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

HSCI 305 midterm quiz study questions

with 100% complete solutions.

  1. What is the correct definition of dysplasia? A. Increased number of cells B. Cells of abnormal appearance C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location D. Abnormal proliferation

E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Cells of abnormal

appearance

  1. What is the correct definition of neoplasia? A. Increased number of cells B. Cells of abnormal appearance C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location D. Abnormal proliferation

E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Abnormal proliferation

  1. What is the correct definition of hyperplasia? A. Increased number of cells B. Cells of abnormal appearance C. Presence of normal cell in the wrong location D. Abnormal proliferation

E. Malignant mass of cells - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Increased number of cells

  1. Which type of cancer originates from epithelial tissues? A. Carcinoma B. Sarcoma C. Lymphoma D. Leukemia

E. Anaplastic - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Carcinoma

  1. What is the likely type of cancer for a tumor originating in the muscles? A. Carcinoma B. Sarcoma C. Lymphoma D. Leukemia

E. Anaplastic - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Sarcoma

  1. What is the likely type of cancer for a tumor originating in the lung? A. Carcinoma B. Sarcoma

C. Lymphoma D. Leukemia

E. Anaplastic - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Carcinoma

  1. This type of leukemia is the most common pediatric cancer A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia D. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

E. Hairy Cell Leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Acute Lymphoblastic

Leukemia

  1. Which of the following can be a diagnostic test for liver cancer? A. PSA B. CA- C. Alpha Fetoprotein D. Endoscopy

E. Mammogram - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Alpha Fetoprotein

  1. What does neo-adjuvant chemotherapy imply? A. New type of chemotherapy B. Chemotherapy is used before surgery C. Chemotherapy is used after surgery D. Chemotherpay used as a new form of adjuvant

E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Chemotherapy is used before

surgery

  1. What is the primary mechanism of radiotherapy? A. Target rapidly dividing cells B. Targets hormone dependent cells C. Targets mutated pathways D. Activates the immune system

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Target rapidly dividing cells

  1. Histology focuses on: A. Gene expression B. Mutational events C. Tissue architecture and organization D. Symptoms

E. Non-invasive imaging - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Tissue architecture and

organization

  1. Mass effect is a feature that can be observed on gross pathology that reflects: A. Heterogeneity of the tumor
  1. In breast cancer, a TNM classification of T2N2M0 corresponds to this AJCC stage of cancer. A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

E. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Stage 3

  1. In general, a small tumor with non-extensive lymph node involvement would correspond to this AJCC stage of cancer. A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

E. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Stage 2

  1. Metastatic disease invariably is classified as this AJCC stage of cancer. A. Stage 0 B. Stage 1 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

E. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Stage 4

  1. What is one the main reasons a cancer invades the normal tissues? A. Path of least resistance B. Recruitment of support cells C. Search for nutrients D. Avoidance of immune system

E. Cancer is bored - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Search for nutrients

  1. This form of invasion is usually carried out by single cells, often times in a single file alignment A. Mesenchymal invasion B. Amoeboid invasion C. Coordinated invasion D. Cohort invasion

E. Chaotic invasion - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Mesenchymal invasion

  1. This form of invasion involves a multicellular sheet that remains attached to the primary tumor A. Mesenchymal invasion B. Amoeboid invasion C. Coordinated invasion D. Cohort invasion

E. Chaotic invasion - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Coordinated invasion

  1. This form of invasion involves single cells squeezing through gaps in the extracellular matrix A. Mesenchymal invasion B. Amoeboid invasion C. Coordinated invasion D. Cohort invasion

E. Chaotic invasion - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Amoeboid invasion

  1. What mechanism of intravasation involves squeezing between cells? A. Teleportation B. Amoeboid invasion C. Paracellular invasion D. Transcellular invasion

E. Lymphatic invasion - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Paracellular invasion

  1. What is the first metastatic site of most cancers? A. Liver B. Blood C. Lung D. Lymph node

E. Extracellular matrix - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Lymph node

  1. Paget's Seed and Soil theory refers to: A. A tumors ability to reach a metastatic site B. A tumors ability to invade surrounding tissues C. A tumors ability to grow in a metastatic site D. A tumors ability to persist in a metastatic site

E. A tumors ability to reach the vasculature - CORRECT ANSWER -C. A tumors

ability to grow in a metastatic site

  1. What is a preferential metastatic site for prostate cancer? A. Brain B. Bone C. Adrenal gland D. Liver

E. Lung - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Bone

  1. Why are metastases with an unknown primary a therapeutic challenge? A. Difficult to identify which therapy will be best B. Difficult to track response of primary tumor C. Metastatic tumors are inherently difficult to treat D. All of the above

E. Tissue sound - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Tissue stiffness

  1. Which of these tissue would you expect to be brightest on an X-ray/CT? A. Lung B. Visceral fat C. Muscle D. Blood

E. Bone - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Bone

  1. A limitation of X-rays but not CT is: A. Superimposition of structures B. Poor resolution C. Radiation dose D. Soft-tissue contrast

E. Examination time - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Superimposition of structures

  1. For MRI, what is the largest source of signal in the body? A. Fat B. Water C. Magnets D. Metals

E. Proteins - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Water

  1. In the osteosarcoma x-ray, the tumor is bright when compared to the surrounding normal tissue. Why? A. Surrounding normal tissue is fatty B. Tumor produces bone C. Tumor displaced shards of normal bone D. Increased cellular density

E. Magic! - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Tumor produces bone

  1. What is the main advantage of MRI over CT? A. Faster B. Great bone signal C. Soft tissue contrast D. Better resolution

E. Insensitive to patient motion - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Soft tissue contrast

  1. Which of the components of the tumor microenvironment is acellular? A. Extracellular matrix B. Fibroblasts C. Immune components D. Vascular components

E. Tumor - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Extracellular matrix

  1. What is the main cellular components of the tumor microenvironment? A. Extracellular matrix B. Fibroblasts C. Immune components D. Vascular components

E. Tumor - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Fibroblasts

  1. Which of these cell types is part of the adaptive immunity? A. Macrophages B. Dendritic cells C. Natural killer cells D. Microglia

E. T-cells - CORRECT ANSWER -E. T-cells

  1. In angiogenesis, blood vessels are made by: A. Transformation of tumor cells into blood vessels B. Extending new capillaries from nearby small vessels C. "De novo" formation from surrounding stroma D. Diverting the flow from a major artery

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Extending new capillaries from

nearby small vessels

  1. At what rough size is angiogenesis requires? A. Less than 1 mm B. 1-5 mm C. 5-10 mm D. 10-15 mm

E. More than 15 mm3 - CORRECT ANSWER -B. 1-5 mm

  1. Which of these can be used as a CT contrast agent? A. Microbubbles B. Iodine C. Gadolinium D. Radioactive materials

E. Blood - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Iodine

  1. Which of these can be used as an MRI contrast agent? A. Microbubbles B. Iodine C. Gadolinium D. Radioactive materials

E. Blood - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Gadolinium

E. Skin graft - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Fine-needle aspiration

  1. The goal of a prophylactic surgery is A. To cure cancer B. To prevent cancer C. To diagnose cancer D. To stage cancer

E. To improve delivery of chemotherapy - CORRECT ANSWER -B. To prevent

cancer

  1. In curative surgery, why must normal tissue also be taken? A. To ensure all of the cancer is taken out B. To improve the success of chemotherapy C. To ensure that the cancer does not invade further D. To improve the patient's quality of life

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -A. To ensure all of the cancer is

taken out

  1. In fluorescence image-guided surgery, why would we want to label non-cancerous structures? A. So we can make cool looking images B. So the surgeon knows what to take out C. So the surgeon knows what to avoid D. So as to minimize the amount of tissue removed during surgery

E. So the surgeon is confused - CORRECT ANSWER -C. So the surgeon knows

what to avoid

  1. Why would we want to use debulking surgery? A. Because complete removal is not possible B. To increase the growth fraction in the tumor C. To reduce symptoms as part of palliative therapy D. All of the above

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -D. All of the above

  1. Cosmetic surgery falls into A. Diagnostic surgery B. Staging Surgery C. Curative Surgery D. Supportive Surgery

E. Reconstructive Surgery - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Reconstructive Surgery

  1. Embolization works by A. Freezing the tumor B. Overheating the tumor

C. Starving the tumor D. Cutting out the tumor

E. Drying out the tumor - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Starving the tumor

  1. Which of these ablation techniques is similar in concept to localized chemotherapy A. Cryoablation B. High Intensity Focused Ultrasound C. Radiofrequency Ablation D. Laser Interstitial Thermotherapy

E. Photodynamic Therapy - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Photodynamic Therapy

  1. Developing nations have a much smaller incidence of ____________ cancer when compared to developed nations A. Breast B. Prostate C. Stomach D. Lung

E. Leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Prostate

  1. Developing nations have a larger incidence of ____________ cancer when compared to developed nations A. Colorectal B. Liver C. Melanoma D. Bladder

E. Breast - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Liver

  1. Which cancer type has the highest incidence in males? A. Breast B. Prostate C. Colon D. Lung

E. Leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Prostate

  1. Which cancer type has the highest incidence in females? A. Breast B. Prostate C. Colon D. Lung

E. Leukemia - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Breast

  1. Which cancer type has the largest mortality in the USA? A. Breast B. Prostate

D. Cell walls

E. Water - CORRECT ANSWER -DNA

  1. The process by which the genetic information of an organism is changed is called: A. Carcinogenesis B. Genomic instability C. Genotoxicity D. Heterogeneity

E. Mutagenesis - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Mutagenesis

  1. How many mutations on average does a cell accumulate per cell division? A. Less than 1 B. 1- C. 10- D. 20-

E. More than 100 - CORRECT ANSWER -B. 1-

  1. In the "Hit" theory of cancer a hit refers to A. Physical impact B. Exposure to a carcinogen C. Disease progression D. Mutational event

E. Cellular generations - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Mutational event

  1. In the multi-step theory of cancer, this step is associated with a benign tumor becoming malignant A. Initiation B. Promotion C. Conversion D. Progression

E. All of them - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Conversion

  1. In the multi-step theory of cancer, this step is thought to be irreversible. A. Initiation B. Promotion C. Conversion D. Progression

E. All of them - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Initiation

  1. A complete carcinogen is likely acting on this particular step of cancer progression A. Initiation B. Promotion C. Conversion D. Progression

E. All of them - CORRECT ANSWER -E. All of them

  1. In the IARC carcinogen classification categories, this group is used for compounds where there is not enough data to ascertain whether it is carcinogenic or not. A. Group 1 B. Group 2A C. Group 2B D. Group 3

E. Group 4 - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Group 3

  1. This type of cancer is known to be caused by tobacco use A. Kidney B. Liver C. Oral D. Skin

E. Stomach - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Oral

  1. This type of cancer is known to be caused by chronic viral infections A. Kidney B. Liver C. Oral D. Skin

E. Stomach - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Liver

  1. Episomal latency refers to: A. The virus proliferating inside the host cells B. Viral genome maintained outside of the host chromosome C. Viral genome integration into host chromosome D. The virus inducing a persistent infection

E. Viral transformation of the host cells - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Viral genome

maintained outside of the host chromosome

  1. Proviral latency refers to: A. The virus proliferating inside the host cells B. Viral genome maintained outside of the host chromosome C. Viral genome integration into host chromosome D. The virus inducing a persistent infection

E. Viral transformation of the host cells - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Viral genome

integration into host chromosome

  1. Rous sarcoma virus is what type of virus? A. single-stranded DNA virus B. single-stranded RNA virus C. Retrovirus

C. Hepatitis C D. Schistosoma haematobium

E. Inflammatory bowel disease - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Human Papilloma

Virus

  1. Which of these infections causes granulomas? A. Helicobacter Pylori B. Human Papilloma Virus C. Hepatitis C D. Schistosoma haematobium

E. Inflammatory bowel disease - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Schistosoma

haematobium

  1. Which of these cancer related genes cause cancer through a gain of function mutation? A. Proto-oncogene B. Oncogene C. Tumor suppressor gene D. DNA repair gene

E. Master regulator - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Oncogene

  1. Hereditary retinoblastoma is most commonly caused by a mutation in what type of gene? A. Proto-oncogene B. Oncogene C. Tumor suppressor gene D. DNA repair gene

E. Master regulator - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Tumor suppressor gene

  1. Xeroderma pigmentosum (a DNA repair genetic disease) is associated with what type of cancer? A. Leukemia B. Skin cancer C. Colon cancer D. Breast cancer

E. Kidney cancer - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Skin cancer

  1. BRCA1 mutation is associated with what type of cancer? A. Leukemia B. Skin cancer C. Colon cancer D. Breast cancer

E. Kidney cancer - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Breast cancer

  1. This repair mechanism is used to repair deaminated bases A. Base excision repair B. Nucleotide excision repair C. Mismatch repair D. Non-homologous end-joining

E. Homologous repair - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Base excision repair

  1. This repair mechanism fixes double stranded DNA breaks with the help of a sister chromatid A. Base excision repair B. Nucleotide excision repair C. Mismatch repair D. Non-homologous end-joining

E. Homologous repair - CORRECT ANSWER -E. Homologous repair

  1. The reciprocal translocation in Burkitts lymphoma leads to cancer by: A. Up-regulation of an oncogene B. Down-regulation of a tumor suppressor C. Creation of an oncogenic fusion protein D. Inactivation of an oncogene

E. Change in the number of chromosomes - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Up-

regulation of an oncogene

  1. The reciprocal translocation in chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) leads to cancer by: A. Up-regulation of an oncogene B. Down-regulation of a tumor suppressor C. Creation of an oncogenic fusion protein D. Inactivation of an oncogene

E. Change in the number of chromosomes - CORRECT ANSWER -C. Creation

of an oncogenic fusion protein

  1. Acquisition of an extra chromosome can potentially lead to a higher cancer risk by: A. Up-regulation of an oncogene B. Down-regulation of a tumor suppressor C. Creation of an oncogenic fusion protein D. Inactivation of an oncogene

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Up-regulation of an oncogene

  1. What technique or tool do we use to identify molecular and genetic subtypes of cancers? A. DNA sequencing B. Tumor karyotype C. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) D. mRNA microarray

D. All of the above

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Need to identify which

mutations/changes are therapeutically relevant

  1. What is a potential consequence of the loss of telomeres? A. Chromosomal fusion B. Loss of genetic information C. Cell death D. Senescence

E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -E. All of the above

  1. What is the Hayflick limit? A. The smallest size for the telomere B. Maximum cell-doubling number C. Maximum lifespan of an organism D. Maximum rate of cell division

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -B. Maximum cell-doubling number

  1. Maintenance of the telomere length impacts which hall mark of cancer? A. Sustaining proliferative signaling B. Evading growth suppressors C. Activating invasion and metastasis D. Enabling replicative immortality

E. Resisting cell death - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Enabling replicative

immortality

  1. What is a limitation of anti-telomerase therapy clinically? A. No immediate cell-killing effect B. Only kills dividing cells C. Telomerase is only expressed in cancer cells D. All of the above

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -A. No immediate cell-killing effect

  1. Growth factors play a role in which phase of cancer development? A. Initial transformation B. Clonal expansion C. Angiogenesis D. Mestastasis

E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -E. All of the above

  1. Growth factor receptors are an example of what type of cancer related genes? A. Proto-oncogene B. Oncogene C. Tumor suppressor gene

D. DNA repair gene

E. Master regulator - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Proto-oncogene

  1. Most of our growth factor cascades are based on kinases for which amino acid? A. Tyrosine B. Serine C. Threonine D. Histidine

E. Aspartate - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Tyrosine

  1. Which member of the ErbB family lacks a kinase function? A. HER B. HER C. HER D. HER

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -C. HER

  1. Which member of the ErbB family is important in lung cancer? A. HER B. HER C. HER D. HER

E. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER -A. HER

  1. How can a truncated growth factor receptor stimulate cancer growth? A. Autocrine signaling B. Overexpression C. Dimerization D. Ligand-independent signaling

E. Co-stimulation - CORRECT ANSWER -D. Ligand-independent signaling

  1. What is a method that cancer cell use to take advantage of growth factor signaling without mutations in the receptors? A. Autocrine signaling B. Overexpression C. Dimerization D. Ligand-independent signaling

E. Co-stimulation - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Autocrine signaling

  1. How can impaired ubiquitination lead to oncogenic signaling? A. Marking proteins for degradation B. Termination of growth factor signaling C. Increased expression of growth factors D. Increased persistence of growth factor signaling