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Galen NUR 242 Exam 1 Med-Surg Tested (Latest 2025 / 2026) Qs with Revised Rationalized Ans, Exams of Nursing

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NUR242 / NUR 242 Exam 1
Medical-Surgical Nursing Concepts
Guarantee passing score of 90% or higher
Consist of 50 Questions with Answers
1. Patricia is an RN working at a rehabilitation center and
witnesses a nurse aid
struggling to lift and reposition an elderly, bed ridden patient.
She explains to the nurse aide that there is a No Lift Policy in
place in the establishment. What does this policy entail
: Answer The concept of a no-lift policy is a pledge from adminis-
trators that proper equipment, adequately maintained and in sufficient
numbers, will be available to care providers to reduce the risks
associated with manual patient handling
2. Immobility effects multiple body systems. What are some
interventions that you can implement to decrease these
effects? Select all that apply.
A. Utilizing waffle mattress to reduce the need for repositioning
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NUR242 / NUR 242 Exam 1

Medical-Surgical Nursing Concepts

Guarantee passing score of 90% or higher

Consist of 50 Questions with Answers

  1. Patricia is an RN working at a rehabilitation center and witnesses a nurse aid struggling to lift and reposition an elderly, bed ridden patient. She explains to the nurse aide that there is a No Lift Policy in place in the establishment. What does this policy entail : Answer The concept of a no-lift policy is a pledge from adminis- trators that proper equipment, adequately maintained and in sufficient numbers, will be available to care providers to reduce the risks associated with manual patient handling
  2. Immobility effects multiple body systems. What are some interventions that you can implement to decrease these effects? Select all that apply. A. Utilizing waffle mattress to reduce the need for repositioning

2 / B. Teds/SCDs C. Rubbing reddened areas D. Limiting fluid intake E. ROM exercises : Answer: B and E Rational: -A is incorrect because regardless of implemented mattress, positioning should be every 2 hours -C is incorrect.You should not rub at reddened areas. This increases the risk for skin break. -D is incorrect.You should encourage proper hydration to promote well hydrated and healthy skin.

  1. True or False: Nurses should do skin assessments once a week : Answer False Rational: Nurses should do full skin assessments a minimum of once per shift.
  2. A pt goes to the ER for swelling and pain in her right calf. The PT states that it occurred after she accidentally cut herself. Based on her symptoms, what skin condition might the nurse suspect the patient has : Answer Cellulitis.

4 / -if the pt has comorbidities such as diabetes or PVD -if the pt is malnourished or dehydrated -if the pt suffers from decreased sensory perception

  1. The nurse notices a localized red area that is nonblanchable on the the patient's coccyx. What stage pressure injury is this recognized as : Answer Stage 1 Stage 1 pressure injury means the skin is intact with a localized area of nonblanch- able erythema (fancy word for redness).
  2. A pt asks you why what he eats has anything to do with wound healing. What is your response : Answer Successful healing of pressure injuries depends on adequate intake of calories protein, vitamins, minerals and water.
  3. After receiving shift report, the night nurse looks at the lab values for a patient with cellulitis. What abnormal lab values might you see : Answer -WBC - elevated -Creatinine- elevated -Bicarbonate- low -Albumin- low -Calcium- low

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  1. What pain rating scale might you use for a child or a nonverbal patient : Answer - Wong Baker-Faces Scale
  2. When assessing a pt's pain. He tells you that the pain comes and goes. What part of the pain assessment is he describing? A. Quality B. Intensity C. Onset and Duration D. Location : Answer: C. Onset and Duration
  3. When explaining to a pt what an intraspinal analgesic the pt states "So the medication will be given to me through the IV in my arm." How would you correct him : Answer instraspinal analgesics are delivered into the epidural space of the spine, also known as the subarachnoid space.
  4. When adjusting a TENs machine on a patient, how do you

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  1. A biopsy is what type of procedure : Answer Diagnostic
  2. This type of surgery prolongs life but does not cure the underlying dis- ease: : Answer: Palliative
  3. A patient has received 10 mg of Morphine via IV 20 minutes ago and is noticeably groggy. The physician requests you witness the signature of his informed consent. How would you, as a patient advocate, proceed : Answer Informed consent should be received before patient is given any preop analgesics to ensure a clear state of mind. Side note: A nurse is not responsible for clarification of risks or procedure explana- tion. A nurse can witness signature.
  4. Pneumonia and Atelectasis are serious concerns post op. What are some things that we can encourage the patient to do

8 / to prevent these complica- tions : Answer Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing

  1. After surgery, Pt A verbalizes they do not want to cough because it is uncomfortable. What are some things the nurse can do to minimize dis- comfort : Answer Analgesic administration and educating on splinting incision site when coughing.
  2. Why is it important for a pt to ambulate and wear SCDs or TED stockings after a procedure : Answer To reduce the risk of DVT
  3. A pt's health history states that they are on corticosteroids. The PACU nurse that this increases the risk of what : Answer wound dehiscence
  4. After a procedure, what should the nurse assess immediately : Answer ABC's Make sure airway is clear, note respiration depth, listen to lung sounds
  5. After a procedure, a pt's vitals signs are the following: BP: 90/ RR: 26 HR: 110 O2: 88%

10 /

  1. When caring for a patient with Sickle Cell Anemia, what are some nursing interventions you'll need to implement : Answer - Avoid extreme temperatures
  • Keep room warm
  • Encourage fluid intake -Encourage ROM
  • Pain management
  1. Match the following infections with the precaution type A. Standard B. Droplet C. Airborne 1. MRSA. 5. Measles 2. TB 6. Varicella 3. Influenza 7. Pneumonia 4. Pediculosis 8. Meningitis : Answer: A, C, B, A, C, C, B, B
  2. A pt is receiving a blood transfusion and breaks out in hives. What is the nurses first step : Answer Immediately stop the the transfusion and start normal saline
  3. How often should the nurse monitor patient's vital signs when they are

11 / receive a blood transfusion : Answer Vital sings must be checked after 15 minutes, 30 minutes, and one hour followed by every hour after.

  1. The nurse preceptor is discussing antipsychotic medications with a stu- dent nurse. The nurse preceptor correctly explains that antipsychotic medica- tions work by: blocking the actions of dopamine.
    1. The nurse is caring for a client who has an antipsychotic medication prescribed. When assessing the client for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) the nurse should assess the client for: muscle rigidity.
    2. The nurse has attended a continuing education conference about the use of antipsychotics with older adults. Which of the following statements by the nurse would indicate a correct understanding of the conference : Answer "Dosage amounts need to be individualized according to the client's age and physical status."
    3. The nurse is teaching a client who has recently been prescribed phenelzine sulfate, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which of the following state- ments by the client would require follow up by the nurse : Answer "It is safe to take over-the-counter (OTC) medications while taking this medication."
    4. The nurse working at an outpatient clinic receives a call from a client who

13 /

  1. The nurse is teaching a client who has been prescribed an oral bisphos- phonate. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective?- : "I will take this medication with a full glass of water."
  2. The nurse preceptor is observing a newly-hired nurse administer pre- scribed sildenafil to a client. It would require immediate intervention by the nurse preceptor if the newly- hired nurse was observed administering this medication to a client with a history of: myocardial infarction (MI).
  3. The nurse is teaching a client who has benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH) about ways to minimize symptoms such as urinary retention. The nurse should teach the client to avoid: anticholinergics.
  4. The nurse preceptor is observing a newly-hired nurse administer pre- scribed opioid analgesic to a client. It would require immediateintervention by the nurse preceptor if the newly-hired nurse was observed administering this medication to a client who has: ncreased intracranial pressure (ICP).
  5. Patient at risk for pressure injury - understanding of illness and compli- ance with treatment: -s/s to report to primary care doctor -drug therapy plan (correct time and dosing)
  • ambulation or positioning schedule
  • dressing changes/skin care
  • nutrition modifications (24-hr diet recall)

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  1. Patient at risk for pressure injury - nutritional needs: - change in muscle mass
  • lackluster nails, sparse hair
  • recent weight loss or more than 5% of usual weight
  • impaired oral intake
  • difficulty swallowing
  • generalized edema
  1. Complications of Immobility: Contractors, foot drop, muscle atrophy DVT Constipation Decreased cardiac output Disorientation renal calculi, UTI Pneumonia pressure ulcers
  2. Prevention of pressure ulcers Early identification of high risk patients (Braden scale): Mental status change and decreased sensory perception impaired physical immobility, requires assistance with turning and positioning or patients who can not verbalize discomfort nutritional status: serum albumin < 3.5 and prealbumin levels < 19. Consult dietitian Incontinence and excessive moisture
  3. Informed consent: Surgeon is responsible before sedation is given and surgery is performed nurses role is to CLARIFY facts and CLARIFY the consent has been

16 / If patient doesn't understand the physician is to be notified BLIND patients can sign own consent but need 2 witnesses In an EMERGENCY, obtaining consent is not imperative, however it is preferred

  1. Pre-Op medications: DRUGS - sedatives(hydroxyzine) Hypnotics(lorazepam) anxiolytics(midazolam) opioid analgesics (morphine, hydromorphone) or anticholin- ergics)
  2. Pre-OP medications given "on call" to surgery. The nurse should:: Properly identify the patient using the armband an asking the patient to state their name and date of birth make sure the operative permit is signed administer the prescribed preoperative medication in the correct dose(s) Raise the side rails, place the bed in lowest position, call light within reach
  3. General Anesthesia: Used most often in head, neck, upper torso and abdomen Once patient reaches PACU the nurse should immediately assess for patients airway, adequate gas exchange, and LOC also assess the rate, pattern and depth of breathing to determine adequacy of gas exchange RR < 10 may indicate respiratory depression due to anesthetic or opioids
  4. Patient controlled analgesia (PCA): Morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone
  • most common used the device is programmed to deliver a certain amount of drug (demand

17 / dose) within a specific interval (lockout interval) the lockout interval is usually 5-15 minutes when the patient is cognitively impaired, another method of drug administration should be considered

  1. Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) unit: Used as an ad- junctive treatment for pain involves the use of battery-operated device capable of delivering small electrical currents through up to the painful areas