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A set of multiple-choice questions and answers designed to help prepare for a firefighter 2 final exam. It covers key concepts related to incident management, safety and health programs, radio communication procedures, and building construction hazards. The questions are presented in a straightforward format, making it easy for students to review and test their knowledge.
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1. Divisions of labor... A. Outlines how things are to be done and usually how far a person can go without requesting further guidance B. Relates to the number of people one person can supervise effectively C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task D. Is the idea that each firefighter answers to only one supervisor ANS C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task 2. The incident management system defines span of control as ANS A. organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into smaller tasks B. having the ability to start small and expand if an incident becomes more complex C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor
D. each person having only one supervisor ANS C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor
3. Firefighters perform duties and responsibilities in accordance with the who establishes the minimum standards for firefighters. A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B. Federal Emergency Management Association (FEMA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) ANS C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 4. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is the standard that contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program. A. 1901 B. 1932 C. 1001 D. 1500 ANS D. 1500 5. What does an initial radio report provide? A. Transfer of command B. Description of conditions as they appear C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm
6. Which of the following should be an arrival report? A. Number of victims B. Discussion of command C. Correct address of the incident D. Emergency medical services on scene ANS C. Correct address of the incident 7. Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a continuous record of actions at scene? A. Arrival report B. Progress report C. Initial radio report D. Personal accountability report ANS B. Progress report 8. What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report? A. Requesting multiple or special alarms B. Providing periodic time transmissions C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene D. Giving command in the absence of command staff ANS B. Providing periodic time transmissions
9. must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear state- ment that alerts all listeners. A. Arrival reports B. Emergency radio traffic C. Tactical progress reports D. Additional resource requests ANS B. Emergency radio traffic 10. Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel account- ability report (PAR)? A. The primary search is started B. A secondary search is completed C. An emergency evacuation is ordered D. The public information officer requests it ANS C. An emergency evacuation is ordered 11. Which of following BEST explains why information is gathered for a post incident report? A. reviewing tactical operations errors B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys
12. What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122) A. Informs other responding units of current conditions B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene ANS C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports 13. What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123) A. Witness names B. Dispatch transmissions C. Estimated cost of damage D. Number of people interviewed ANS C. Estimated cost of damage 14. Which statement regarding fire incident reorts is correct? A. Reports are used only for statistical information. B. Reports are collected nationally and then reported to each state. C. Paper reports are preferred over computer reports since they are signed. D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database. ANS D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database 15. National Fire Incident Reporting System information is ANS A. used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire.
B. confidential. C. limited to fire incidents only. D. only to be shared internally. ANS A. Used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire
16. Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters ANS (190) A. judge roof safety. B. predict fire development. C. select correct forcible entry tools. D. select the right type of vertical tactical ventilation. ANS C. Select correct forcible entry tool 17. Which of the following BEST describes a primary dangerous building condition? (191) A. Conditions that suppress fire B. Conditions that allow tactical ventilation C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread D. Conditions that permit occupants to safely escape ANS C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread
22. Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior support is needed? (193) A. Lantern B. Mansard C. Sawtooth D. Bowstring truss ANS D. Bowstring truss 23. Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194) A. Fire detection systems may be damaged. B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread. C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place. D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part
of the building while work goes on in the other. ANS C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place
24. Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all ANS (195) A. renovations hazards. B. structural collapse factors. C. building construction hazards. D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure. ANS B. Structural collapse factors 25. Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197) A. It can occur when all the factors are met. B. It can only occur before fire suppression. C. It can only occur during fire suppression. D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished. ANS D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished 26. In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197) A. Incipient B. Growth C. Fully developed D. Decay ANS D. Decay
D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls ANS B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
30. For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern? (199) A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V ANS A. Type I 31. When exposed to temperatures above unprotected steel will expand and twist. (199) A. 300°F (149°C) B. 500°F (260°C) C. 900°F (482°C) D. 1,000°F (538°C) ANS D. 1,000°F (538°C) 32. A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when ANS (200) A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse. B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting. C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time. D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on- scene personnel.
ANS C. The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time
33. A collapse zone must be established when ANS (201) A. a defensive strategy has been adopted. B. there is no evidence of structural instability. C. mortar between masonry shows no sign of deterioration. D. furnishings and finishes do not overwhelm fire suppression systems. ANS A. A defensive strategy has been adopted 34. Which of the following must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone? (201) A. Local adopted building codes B. Number of personnel on-scene C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel D. Number of personnel on-scene and type of building construction ANS C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel 35. The primary fire hazard in fire resistive construction is the ANS A. structural members. B. contents of the structure.
C. heavy content of fire loading. D. presence of combustible furnishings and finishes. ANS B. Increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems
39. Conventional glass ANS A. is not an effective barrier to fire extension. B. is a good barrier to fire extension. C. will not crack due to the heat. D. will contain the fire to that area. ANS A. is not an effective barrier to a fire extension 40. A(an) is designed to prevent the spread of fire within a structure or between adjacent structures. A. stop B. partition C. truss D. fire wall ANS D. Fire wall 41. A connecting plate used in truss construction that can be made of flat steel stock, light gauge metal, or plywood is the definition of a ANS A. joint. B. gusset plate.
C. column. D. joist. ANS B. Gusset plate
42. A partition wall ANS A. is a load-bearing wall. B. presents the greatest danger for building collapse. C. simply divides two areas within a structure. D. has the highest fire-resistive rating. ANS C. simply divides two areas within a structure 43. The usual cause of collapse of a lightweist steel truss is the ANS A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure. B. poor construction methods. C. impact load of firefighters jumping onto roof. D. coolings effects of water. ANS A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure 44. Fire walls are ANS A. usually veneer walls. B. used only to separate two attached buildings. C. only used to divide a large building into sections. D. usually extended from the foundation up to and through the roof of a
48. Which of the following BEST describes the result of running a generator for a long period of time without a load? A. May contaminate fuel B. Can damage electrical system C. Will overheat and damage generator D. Allows equipment to warm-up before use ANS C. Will overheat and damage generator 49. If a bulb must be replaced while hot, wear to prevent being burned. A.latex gloves B.cotton gloves C.leather gloves D.synthetic gloves ANS C. Leather gloves 50. Which of the following rescue tool uses includes tools to drag materials away to free victims? A. Lifting B. Pulling C. Cutting D. Stabilizing ANS B. Pulling 51. Tool capabilities vary depending on ANS (486) A. age of tool.
B. user ability. C. age of tool and power source. D. manufacturer and power source. ANS D. Manufacturer and power source
52. Which rescue tool power source is typically powered by pumps? (488) A. Electric B. Hydraulic C. Pneumatic D. Electric/pneumatic ANS B. Hydraulic 53. Which hydraulic/electric tool is excellent for a small rapid- interventions vehicle? (489) A. Shears B. Spreaders C. Extension rams D. Combination spreader/shears ANS D. Combination spreaders/shears 54. Which type of rescue tools are typically vehicle repair tools adapted to fire service use? (490) A. Pulling tools