Final Multiple Choice Test on Principles of Biology | BIOL 100, Exams of Biology

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• EXAM

EXAM 2

2. A eukaryotic cell spends most of its time in which phase? a. Telophase b. Interphase c. Mitotic phase d. Cytokinesis
3. Telomeres ___. a. are non-coding segments of DNA b. are repetitive DNA c. serve as protective caps for chromosomes d. all of the above
4. Individuals carrying two non-functioning alleles for the gene producing the enzyme that converts phenylalanine into tyrosine ___. a. will develop phenylketonuria (PKU) b. may or may not develop phenylketonuria, because the environment (diet in this case) also plays a role in determining their phenotype c. will develop both PKU and Tay-Sachs disease, because the genes causing the two traits are on the same chromosome d. do not need to worry about their phenylalanine consumption, because PKU depends on both genes and the environment
5. Naïve B and T cells ___. a. have antigen receptors that have never bound antigen b. recognize pathogens that have caused previous infections c. do not recognize specific pathogens but are part of the general response to any infection d. become natural killer cells when activated
6. Allergies are due to ____. a. a weak form of a bacterial pathogen b. exposure to viruses c. an autoimmune response d. the production of antibodies that bind to an allergen
7. Nondisjunction could produce individuals with ___. a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Tay-Sachs d. Either a or b
8. Which of the following does not occur during prophase? a. Homologous chromosomes separate b. Chromosomes begin to condense c. Nuclear envelope disappears d. Spindle fibers are formed 9. Cancer cells are different from normal cells because ___. a. they have no contact inhibition b. they can divide indefinitely c. they have reduced “stickiness” d. all of the above 10. Which of the following is true about sex determination in sea turtles? a. The number of chromosomes determines the sex of the individual. b. The temperature at which the egg is incubated determines the sex. c. Individuals with the sex chromosomes WW develop into males and WZ into females. d. The age of the father determines the sex. 11. A person with two identical alleles for a particular gene is said to be ___. a. homozygous for that gene b. heterozygous for that gene c. heterozygous for every gene d. homozygous for every gene 12. Which of the following is directly involved in triggering inflammation? a. natural killer cells b. histamine c. cytotoxic T cells d. lysozyme 13. The test-cross ___. a. makes it possible to determine the genotype of an individual of unknown genotype that exhibits the dominant version of a trait b. is a cross between an individual whose genotype for a trait is not known and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait c. sometimes requires the production of multiple offspring to reveal the genotype of an individual whose genotype is unknown (but who exhibits the dominant phenotype) d. all of the above 14. Polygenic refers to ___. a. a trait where the heterozygote displays characteristics of both homozygotes b. a single gene that has more than 2 alleles c. a trait that is influenced by many different genes d. one gene that affects many traits 15. Which of the following lists most accurately represents the sequence of phases of mitosis? a. Prophase, metaphase, interphase, anaphase b. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase c. Prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase d. Prophase, metaphase anaphase, telophase

16. Tumors are ___. a. excessive cell growth and division b. always harmful c. only found in the brain d. byproducts of glycolysis
17. Crossing over occurs during ____. a. Prophase I b. Prophase II c. Anaphase I d. Anaphase II
18. Which of the following statements about the human immune system is true? a. Macrophages act generally to destroy any foreign particles while a B cell targets a specific pathogen. b. B cells act generally to destroy any foreign particles while a macrophage targets a particular pathogen. c. Macrophages destroy viruses while B cells destroy bacteria. d. All components of the immune system act in a non-specific way to eliminate all pathogens.
19. An autoimmune response occurs when ___. a. a person is exposed to a pathogen b. lysozyme is secreted to prevent a pathogen from entering the body c. a person is exposed to an allergen d. the body’s immune system attacks its own cells
20. Which disease is caused by being born with shorter than normal telomeres? a. Down syndrome b. Autism c. Cancer d. Hutchinson-Gilford progeria
21. Red-green color blindness in humans is a recessive trait determined by a gene on the X chromosome. Because of this, we would expect that ____. a. only women can be colorblind b. only men can be colorblind c. men are more likely to be colorblind than women d. only hermaphrodites can be colorblind
22. After an egg is fertilized, which process will lead to the development of that offspring? a. albinism b. binary fission c. meiosis d. mitosis
23. Which of the following cells are the longest lasting in the body? a. Effector cytotoxic T cells b. Natural killer cells c. Complement d. Memory cells
    24. Helper T cells ___. a. are needed to activate cell division of other T cells during an immune response b. produce antibodies c. produce complement d. are resistant to HIV
    25. Mitosis results in ___. a. haploid cells b. diploid cells c. fertilization d. binary fission
    26. The structure of an antibody consists of a ___. a. constant region that binds generic foreign molecules and a variable region that binds to specific antigens b. “Y” shape, with each of the 3 arms binding a different antigen c. “Y” shape, with a variable region that binds to a specific antigen d. none of the above
    27. Which of the following statements about meiosis and mitosis is incorrect? a. DNA replication occurs in both mitosis and meiosis. b. Crossing over occurs in both mitosis and meiosis c. Meiosis produces gametes. d. Both a and b are incorrect.
    28. A woman with type O blood and a man with type AB blood could have children with which of the following phenotypes? a. Type AB only b. Type B only c. Either type A or type B d. Type O
    29. Which of the following statements about the inflammatory response is true? a. It increases the movement of white blood cells into infected tissue. b. Blood vessels become leaky in the area of the infection. c. Blood vessels dilate in the area of the infection. d. All of the above statements are true.
    30. The division of the cytoplasm during cell division is referred to as ___. a. cytokinesis b. cytoplasm splicing c. cytodivsion d. vegetative growth

EXAM 3 2.

Stanley Miller’s laboratory experiment in the 1950s: a. confirmed that Gregor Mendel’s experiments with pea genetics was correct b. confirmed the Big Bang Theory c. confirmed that continental drift is the best explanation for the position of the continents d. provided a demonstration of how life might have gotten started

3. The wave lengths of light that plants use for photosynthesis are: a. uv b. visible c. infrared d. x-rays
4. In the disease amoebic dysentery the protist: a. causes the red blood cells to swell and burst b. feeds on the bacteria in the stomach c. migrates through the body and can destroy brain cells d. feeds on the lining of the stomach and intestines
5. The Big Bang Theory a. is an ancient theory first formulated by the Greeks on how the earth was formed b. is a critical component of Charles Darwin’s first ideas on evolution c the current theory on how the universe was formed d. best explains earthquakes and the movement of the continents
6. Our limestone deposits here in Kansas were formed primarily by: a. amoeba protists b. breakdown of mollusk shells c. outwash from the Pleistocene glaciers d. volcanic eruptions and the moving continents
7. In the biological species concept, what aspect is critical to determining if two individuals are of the same species? a. they must be capable of interbreeding b. they must have the same chromosome number c. they must have the same diet d. they must live in the same location
8. By microevolution we mean: a. change at the genetic level of a population b. change at the species level c. inbreeding depression d. speciation
9. Sponges use ________ for protection a. mimicry b. poisonous bacteria c. sharp glass-like spicules d. none of the above
10. Humans continue to be susceptible to malaria because? a. all fungi are difficult to control with safe drugs b. it is so readily transmitted from human to human contact c. the causative organism evolves in response to our use of man-made drugs d. viruses are quite difficult to control
11. Earthworms are: a. cnidarians b. flatworms c. round worms d. segmented worms
12. Continental Drift best explains: a. the movement of the Earth’s continents b. the formation of the universe, our sun and moon, and the earth c. the movement of the chromatids within the cell d. none of the above
13. The fungi a. absorb nutrients from other organisms b. are all predators feeding on smaller organisms they capture c. use the flagella to locate food a. use chloroplasts to create energy
14. The two words Homo sapiens represent: a. the genus and species of humans b. the kingdom and phylum of humans c. the order and family of humans d. the scientific name of humans developed by Charles Darwin
15. Fungi have cell walls made of: a. cellulose b. chitin c. hyphae d. mycelium
16. Plants use the molecule lignin to: a. absorb CO b. harden cell walls c. create vascular tissue d. hold water
17. The cuticle of a plant: a. is an adaptation to a terrestrial environment b. is an adaptation to an aquatic environment c. allows the exchange of gases d. allows the exchange of water
18. In plants, stomata: a. allow for the exchange of water

b. allow for the exchange of gases c. hold the plant upright d. allow the plant to collect more sunlight

19. Conifers are: a. bryophytes b. angiosperms c. gymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants
20. Mosses are: a. bryophytes b. angiosperms c. gymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants
21. The petals of a flower are used to: a. disperse pollen b. collect water c. photosynthesize d. attract pollinators
22. Fungi are more closely related to: a. plants b. bacteria c. protists d. animals
23. In terms of diversity,________ have the highest diversity today. a. bryophytes b. angiosperms c. gymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants
24. _______ lack lignin. a. bryophytes b. angiosperms c. gymnosperms d. seedless vascular plants
25. Which group of animals is the most important for plant pollination? a. insects b. spiders c. vertebrates d. none of the above as few animals pollinate flowers
    26. Which of the following mechanisms of evolution can counteract the effects of natural selection between two adjacent populations a. mutation b. gene flow c. genetic drift d. all of the above
    27. Colorful and elaborate feather patterns in male birds are usually the result of a. gene flow b. natural selection c. artificial selection d. nonrandom mating
    28. Eukaryotic organisms have a. the basic cell organelles b. a well-formed nucleus c. DNA found within the nucleus d. all of the above
    29. Carolus Linnaeus the Swedish botanist provided us with a. the first practical view of continental drift b. the binominal system of classifying organisms c. the germ theory of disease d. the best explanation for inheritance
    30. Wolves and domestic dogs are both descended from the same wild wolf ancestor and can still interbreed. The existence of these two species is an example of a. extinction b. artificial selection c. natural selection d. inheritance of acquired characteristics
    31. The order and diversity of life can best be explained by a. chance b. human genetics c. evolution d. all of the above
    32. Symbiosis means: a. that species separated by continental drift or mountain formation are still closely related b. that there is gene flow between two organisms c. two species live together or interact closely d. mutation is the origin of new variation
    33. Malaria a. is still extremely serious in parts of the world b. was once considered a serious disease but is now controlled by modern drugs c. is still widespread, albeit not serious anymore d. none of the above
    34. The author of the book Little House on the Prairie , Laura Ingalls Wilder, writes that her family suffered from malaria in southern Kansas in the 1800s. They thought that they were infected with the disease from eating watermelons. Today, we know that they contracted the disease from: a. a fungus b. a protist c. a prion

d. none of the above

8. Aposematic coloration is associated with

a. camouflage b. chloroplasts

c. aquatic environments

d. warning

9. When we eat a clam, we are consuming

a. the muscular foot, heart, stomach, reproductive organs, and more b. the muscular foot only

c. only the reproductive organs

d. the water vascular system

10. Some phyla included within the protostomes include a. Arthropoda, Platyhelminthes & Porifera b. Porifera and Chordata

c. Porifera and Protista

d. all of the above

11. A bilaterally symmetrical animal can be divided into mirror images by a. any cut through the body because all arms are equal b. any cut from its anterior to its posterior end c. only a cut through the midline of its body from its dorsal and ventral surface d. it can only be divided one way into two equal halves
12. By using stem cells in research and medicine, scientists are a. making large numbers of cells of the same tissue type so that there are backup (duplicate) tissues for the body of the organisms b. making stems c. stimulating cells to make different kinds of tissues than they originally would have made

d. none of the above

13. Deuterostome animals in development have the blastophore

a. becoming the anus of the organism

b. becoming the mouth of the organism

c. becoming both the mouth and the anus of the organism

d. none of the above

14. The tube feet of starfish are used for

a. digesting food

b. elimination of wastes

c. handling the prey

d. oxygen exchange

15. Which group is most closely related phylogenetically to the first vertebrates? a. annelids b. arthropods c. echinoderms d. molluscs
16. Coelacanths are: a. cartilaginous fish b. jawless fish c. lobe-finned fish d. lung fish

17. The term hermaphrodites means:

a. both sexes are on the same individual

b. the organism has male individuals and female individuals as separate individuals

c. the organism feeds both using predation and chloroplasts

d. none of the above

18. All molluscs have:

a. jointed exoskeleton

b. mantle

c. nematocysts

d. tube feet and spiny skin

19. Which of the following is NOT a feature that is found exclusively among all vertebrates: a. dorsal nerve cord b. four legs c. notochord d. post-anal tail

20. Which came first, the chicken or the egg?

a. The chicken, because the amniotic egg did not evolve until after the first birds appeared b. The chicken, because there had to be a chicken to lay an egg

c. The egg, because chickens are a man-made species

d. The egg, because the amniotic egg evolved well before the first birds appeared

21. In metamorphosis we see:

a. a reorganization of the body between the larval stage and the adult

b. in adults the two sexes are quite different in appearance

c. the complete process a cell goes through in dividing into two cells

d. mutations that are caused by an outside source

22. The mantle in molluscs produces:

a. both the eggs and sperm

b. the shell

c. the digestive juices for breaking down the food

d. none of the above

23. The jaws we now see in all vertebrates first appeared in which organism?

a. amphibians

b. birds

c. fishes

d. reptiles

24. Lampreys are considered important to the fishery industry because: a. the flavor of their meat is highly prized b. they consume the larval stages of commercially valuable fish c. they are parasitic feeding on adult fish of commercial value d. all of the above
25. Skeletons of ossified bone are found in the? a. coelocanth

b. lampreys c. rays d. sharks

26. Which statement is NOT true? a. all vertebrates are chordates b. all chordates have a dorsal tubular nerve cord c. all chordates have a notochord d. all chordates have pharyngeal pouches or slits for air exchange throughout their lives

27. Vertebrate jaws:

a. evolved from the pharyngeal gill slits

b. evolved from the support rods of the gills

c. both a and b

d. none of the above

28. The two most important evolutionary innovations in vertebrates, which resulted in their

eventual domination among the large animals, were:

a. air-breathing lungs and a more efficient heart.

b. dry scaly skin and feathers

c. jaws and amniotic eggs

d. the ability to walk on land or fly

29. Which of the following is NOT a reptile? a. salamander b. dinosaur c. turtle d. timber rattlesnake
30. All animals a. are heterotrophic; they eat other organisms b. reproduce sexually c. have a backbone d. none of the above
31. The vast majority of invertebrates are: a. deuterostomes b. protostomes c. parasitic d. terrestrial
32. The molluscan class Cephalopoda includes a. octopus, squid, cuttlefish b. true starfish c. coelacanth d. lampreys
33. Birds are most closely related to: a. mammals b. crocodiles c. lobe-finned fishes d. coelacanths
    34. Reptiles show numerous adaptations for a completely terrestrial life cycle. One adaptation that first occurred in the reptiles includes: a. hair b. the amniotic egg c. lungs d. none of the above
    35. Which of the following are chordates? a. frogs b. starfish c. all of the above d. none of the above
    36. Sharks have ___________ skeletons, while salmon have _________ skeletons a. cartilaginous; bony b. boney; cartilaginous c. vertebrate; chordate d. chordate; vertebrate
    37. Lampreys and hagfishes: a. have lobed fins b. are the only extant air-breathing fish c. are more closely related to the ray-finned fishes than they are to the cartilaginous fish d. are the only jawless vertebrates
    38. Which of the following are chordates? a. frogs b. humans c. fish d. all of the above are chordates
    39. What are the major developmental characteristics that show a close relationship between the echinoderms and the chordates? a. both groups have bony skeleton b. both groups have bilateral symmetry c. both groups have radial symmetry d. both groups have the anus develop similarly
    40. The Gastropoda includes the: a. common garden snails b. banana slug c. nudibranchs d. all of the above
    41. Members of the starfish

a. are herbivorous, primarily feeding on algae

b. are predators, feeding primarily on fish

c. are oriented with the mouth upward

d. have radial symmetry

42. All members of the phylum Chordata have: a. a dorsal nerve cord b. fully formed jaws c. both cartilage and ossified bones d. lobe fins or legs

39. D

40. D

41. D

42. A

43. B

44. B

45. A