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FEMA IS-0005.AN ACTUAL EXAM
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Additive effect - ANSWER - A biological response to exposure to multiple chemicals which is equal to the sum of the effects of the individual agents Adsorption - ANSWER - The bonding of chemicals to soil particles or other surfaces. Aerosal - ANSWER - A solid particle or liquid droplet suspended in air. An aerosol is larger than a molecule and can be filtered from the air Antagonism - ANSWER - The situation in which two chemicals interfere with each other's actions, or one chemical interferes with the action of the other. Aquifer - ANSWER - An underground bed, or layer, of earth, gravel, or porous storage that contains water Asphyxiants - ANSWER - Chemicals that starve the cells of an individual from the life- giving oxygen needed to sustain metabolism Biodegradable - ANSWER - Capable of decomposing quickly through the action of microorganisms. Biomagnification - ANSWER - The tendency of certain chemicals to become concentrated as they move into and up the food chain Boiling point - ANSWER - The temperature at which a liquid will start to become a gas, and boil. A chemical with a low boiling point can boil and evaporate quickly. If a material that is flammable also has a low boiling point, a special fire hazard exists. Carcinogen - ANSWER - A chemical or physical agent that encourages cells to develop cancer. Central nervous system depressants - ANSWER - Toxicants that deaden the central nervous system (CNS), diminishing sensation CERCLA - ANSWER - The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980 —the Federal statute that authorized "Superfund." Administered by EPA, the law provides funding for cleanups and emergency response actions for hazardous substances at the worst hazardous waste sites in the United States. CERCLA is also significant because it set the first criteria for notification of emergencies involving hazardous substances. Superfund regulates abandoned waste disposal sites;
for active disposal site regulation, see RCRA.
actions including assessment, firefighting, rescue, and containment; they are not responsible for cleanup operations following the incident. Absorption - ANSWER - The passing of a substance into the circulatory system of the body. Also used specifically to refer to entry of toxicants through the skin. ACGIH - ANSWER - American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienist Acute Exposure - ANSWER - An exposure to a toxic substance which occurs in a short or single time period. Acute toxicity - ANSWER - Any poisonous effect produced by a single short-term exposure. The LD50 of a substance (the lethal dose at which 50 percent of test animals succumb to the toxicity of the chemicals) is typically used as a measure of its acute toxicity Incident commander - ANSWER - The person in charge of on-scene coordination of a response to an incident, usually a senior officer in a fire department Inversion - ANSWER - An atmospheric condition caused by a layer of warm air preventing cool air trapped beneath it from rising, thus holding down pollutants that could otherwise be dispersed. Irritant - ANSWER - Chemicals which inflame living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact, causing pain or swelling Ld50 - ANSWER - The calculated dosage of a material that would be fatal to 50% of an exposed population (Lethal Dose 50%). Leachate - ANSWER - Material that pollutes water as it seeps through solid waste. Leaching - ANSWER - The process by which water dissolves nutrient chemicals or contaminants and carries them away, or moves them to a lower layer. LEPC - ANSWER - Local Emergency Planning Committee LOAEL - ANSWER - The Lowest Observed Adverse Effect Level, i.e., the lowest dose which produces an observable adverse effect Medium - ANSWER - The environmental vehicle by which a pollutant is carried to the receptor (e.g., air, surface water, soil, or groundwater). Melting point - ANSWER - The temperature at which a solid material changes to a liquid. Solid materials with low melting points should not be stored in hot areas
Mg - ANSWER - Milligram, a metric unit of mass, one thousandth of a gram: 1 mg = 0.001 g = 1000 μg. Mm3 - ANSWER - Milligrams per cubic meter. The mass in micrograms of a substance contained within a cubic meter of another substance or vacuum. This is the standard unit of measure for the mass density (concentration) of particles suspended in air; also sometimes used for the concentration of gases in air. MSDS - ANSWER - A worksheet required by the U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) containing information about hazardous chemicals in the workplace. Msdss are used to fulfill part of the hazardous chemical inventory reporting requirements under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act. Mutagen - ANSWER - A chemical or physical agent that induces a permanent change in the genetic material NOAEL - ANSWER - No Observable Adverse Effect Level. NECP suit - ANSWER - Non-encapsulating chemical protective suit. Not gas or vapor tight. Organic compound - ANSWER - Chemicals that contain carbon. Volatile organic compounds vaporize at room temperature and pressure. They are found in many indoor sources, including many common household products and building materials. OSHA - ANSWER - he Occupational Safety and Health Administration, part of the Department of Labor Pathway - ANSWER - A history of the flow of a pollutant from source to receptor, including qualitative descriptions of emission type, transport, medium, and exposure route. PEL - ANSWER - Permissible Exposure Limits set by OSHA as a guide to acceptable levels of chemical exposure. Percent volatile - ANSWER - The percentage of a chemical that will evaporate at ordinary temperatures. A high volatile percentage may mean there is more risk of explosion, or that dangerous fumes can be released. Evaporation rates are a better measure of the danger than the percent volatile measure. PH - ANSWER - The ph is a measure of how acidic or caustic a chemical is, based on a scale of 1 to 14. A ph of 1 means the chemical is very acidic. Pure water has a ph of 7. A ph of 14 means the chemical is very caustic. Both acidic and caustic substances are dangerous to skin and other valuable surfaces
Threshold - ANSWER - The lowest dose of a chemical at which a specific measurable effect is observed. Below this dose, the effect is not observed Title 111 - ANSWER - The third part of SARA, also known as the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act of 1986. Has four major sections:
- Emergency planning 2.emergency notification 3.community right to know reporting requirements 4.toxic chemical release and emissions reporting TLV - ANSWER - Threshold Limit Values, which are the calculated airborne concentrations of a substance to which all workers could be repeatedly exposed 8 hours a day without adverse effects. TECP suit - ANSWER - Totally encapsulating chemical protective suit. Special protective suits made of material that prevents toxic or corrosive substances or vapors from coming in contact with the body. Gas and vapor tight suit. Toxicity - ANSWER - The degree of danger posed by a substance to animal or plant life. Toxicology - ANSWER - The study of the adverse effects of chemicals on biological systems, and the assessment of the probability of their occurrence. Transformation - ANSWER - The chemical alteration of a compound by processes such as reaction with other compounds or breakdown into component elements. Transport - ANSWER - Hydrological, atmospheric, or other physical processes that convey pollutants through and across media from source to receptor. Vapor density - ANSWER - The measure of the heaviness of a chemical's vapor as compared to the weight of a similar amount of air. A vapor density of 1.0 is equal to air. Vapors that are heavier than air may build up in low-lying areas, such as along floors, in sewers, or in elevator shafts. Vapors that are lighter than air rise and may collect near the ceiling. Vapor pressure - ANSWER - The measure of how quickly a chemical liquid will evaporate. Chemicals with low boiling points have high vapor pressures. If a chemical with a high vapor pressure spills, there is an increased risk of explosion and a greater risk that workers will inhale toxic fumes Volatilization - ANSWER - Entry of contaminants into the atmosphere by evaporation from soil or water
Workers right-to-know - ANSWER - Legislation mandating communicating of chemical information to employees. A regulatory initiative by OSHA, and an antecedent to Community Right-to-Know. National Response team - ANSWER - composed of 14 Federal agencies—experts publish guidance on emergency response planning and stand ready to assist States in the event of a major chemical emergency. As co-chairs of the NRT, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) play key roles in environmental protection. The two agencies share specific responsibility for waterway protection, EPA having primary responsibility for most inland waters and the USCG handling responsibility for coastal water and some specifically-designated Federal navigable waterways FFDCA - ANSWER - Both the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) regulate pesticides. Originally requiring mere registration of pesticides, FIFRA was amended in 1972 to require testing for short-term and long-term toxic effects prior to registration. For pesticides used on food crops, EPA establishes an upper limit on the amount of residue that can remain on food based on human tolerance levels. The FFDCA requires the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to enforce these residue limits by monitoring and seizing foods whose residues are in excess of these standards. The Clean Air Act - ANSWER - The CAA was passed by Congress in 1970 and signed into law by President Nixon. This Act is the basic Federal law for controlling toxic air pollution. It requires EPA to keep an up-to-date list of industrial pollutants that are hazardous to human health, and set an emission standard for each "with an ample margin of safety." Under the law, EPA prepares minimum pollution standards, and States prepare implementation plans showing how these standards will be attained. States issue permits for the release of listed pollutants into the atmosphere, and take samples to evaluate the State's air quality. Of the 320 toxic air pollutants named in the act, EPA has to date completed regulations governing only 7, in large part because industry protests have resulted in legal precedents requiring costly and lengthy scientific studies to show that a pollutant has harmful effects at a certain level. The CAA was expanded, with its central public health approach reaffirmed, under Presidents Carter and Bush. The CAA requires EPA to review public health standards for six major air pollutants every 5 years. Under the law, the standards must be set to "protect public health with an adequate margin of safety" and be based only upon a consideration of public health, with cost factors coming into account only during the implementation phase. EPA recently completed the scientific review for five of the six pollutants and has set new, updated standards for only two of these—ozone and particulate matter. The Safe Drinking Water Act - ANSWER - The Safe Drinking Water Act was enacted in 1974, specifically to protect the public water supplies from contamination by mandating water testing, denying Federal funds to projects that threaten critical water supplies, and requiring States to submit plans to protect public wells from contamination.
environments where hazardous materials are present (primarily chemical industries), or during emergency response to incidents involving hazardous materials. What does oxy mean - ANSWER - it means the material is an oxidizer and can easily release oxygen to create or worsen a fire or explosion hazard What does the w mean - ANSWER - indicates a material that reacts with water to release a gas that is either flammable or hazardous to health What does the tri-blade propeller mean - ANSWER - the material is radioactive True - ANSWER - no chemical identification system can accurately assess the synergistic effects of one chemical combining with another, or the possible effects of combing unknown amounts of several chemicals. True or false? Hazard class 1 - ANSWER - explosives Division 1.1 - ANSWER - explosives with a mass explosion hazard which affects almost the entire load instantaneously Division 1.2 - ANSWER - explosives with a projection hazard Division 1.3 - ANSWER - explosives with predominantly a fire hazard and either a minor blast hazard or a minor projection hazard or both. Division 1.4 - ANSWER - explosives with no significant blast hazard, that present a minor explosion hazard, effects are largely confined to the package and no projection of fragments of appreciable size or range is to be expected. An external fire must not cause virtually instantaneous explosion of almost the entire contents of the package Division 1.5 - ANSWER - very insensitive explosives; blasting agents; division is comprised of substances that have a mass explosion hazard but are so insensitive that there is very little probability of initiation or of transition from burning to detonation under normal conditions of transport Division 1.6 - ANSWER - extremely insensitive detonating articles Hazard class 2 - ANSWER - gases Division 2.1 - ANSWER - flammable compressed gases Division 2.2 - ANSWER - non-flammable, non-toxic compressed gases Division 2.3 - ANSWER - gases toxic by inhalation
Division 2.4 - ANSWER - corrosive gases (canada) Hazard class 3 - ANSWER - flammable/combustible liquids Flammable liquids - ANSWER - one that evolves flammable vapors in air at a temp of 140 degrees f or below as determined by a specific method Combustible liquids - ANSWER - one that evolves combustible vapors in air at a temp between 140 f and 200 degrees f as determined by a specific method Hazard class 4 - ANSWER - flammable solids/spontaneously combustible materials/dangerous when wet materials Division 4.1 - ANSWER - flammable solids; likely to cause fire by self-ignition through friction, absorption of moisture, spontaneous chemical changes, or as a result of heating Division 4.2 - ANSWER - Spontaneously combustible materials Division 4.3 - ANSWER - Dangerous when wet materials Hazard class 5 - ANSWER - oxidizers and organic peroxides Division 5.1 - ANSWER - oxidizers; substances that yield oxygen readily to stimulate the combustion of organic materials Division 5.2 - ANSWER - organic peroxide Hazard class 6 - ANSWER - toxic materials and infectious substances Division 6.1 - ANSWER - toxic materials; including chemical warfare agents Division 6.2 - ANSWER - infectious substances (etiologic or disease-causing) agents Hazard class 7 - ANSWER - radioactive materials-particles or radioactive waves which are capable of killing or damaging cells. Radioactive materials have three labels.
- white 1 label
- Yellow 2 label
- Yellow 3 label Hazard class 8 - ANSWER - corrosive materials- liquids or solids that are capable of causing visible destruction or irreversible alteration in metals or human skin tissue at the site of contact Hazard class 9 - ANSWER - miscellaneous dangerous good Division 9.1 - ANSWER - misc dangerous goods- canada
are released into the atmosphere, particularly if residential areas are located near the stripping tower Activated carbon - ANSWER - This treatment passes water through columns containing activated carbon, leaving many chemicals attached to the carbon particles. A sensitive issue in this type of treatment is how to dispose of the contaminated carbon Chemical precipitation - ANSWER - In this approach, primarily used to remove metals such as lead and arsenic, chemicals are added which can convert metals to insoluble particles. These particles then settle out of the water as sludge. The controversial issue with this method is the disposal of the toxic sludge The --- usually prepares the SDS of a hazardous substance - ANSWER - manufacturer or distributor To inform workers of hazards a chemical may pose, OSHA requires employers to develop a - ANSWER - hazard communication program Health hazards of a given chemical would be found in what section of the SDS - ANSWER - section vi PPE and equipment for safe handling of the chemical would be discussed in what section of the SDS - ANSWER - section viii Permissible exposure limits are levels of exposures mandated by - ANSWER - osha Osha's pel for hydrogen fluoride is - ANSWER - 30. Ppm National priorities list are dangerous sites targeted for cleanup under - ANSWER - superfund act What is the minimum number of persons needed to manage a hazardous materials incident safely - ANSWER - 8 The most critical element in avoiding confusion and conflict among responders at a hazardous materials incident is - ANSWER - a good plan which all responders know and use The person in charge of managing responding forces at a hazardous materials incident is - ANSWER - the incident commander (usually from the local fire service) Which of the following should you do if you are in your car and learn that there is an accident involving a volatile toxic substance ahead of you on the road - ANSWER - follow instructions and remain clear of the release plume
A person whose skin has been in contact with a toxic substance should be - ANSWER
- decontaminated Which of the following is not typically represented on a local emergency planning committee - ANSWER - the governor To find out more about your local plan for accidents at chemical plants and other fixed sites, your first contact should be - ANSWER - the lepc The success of any site operation and readiness of employees to respond to emergencies is based on - ANSWER - initial and annual refresher training
