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1. What is the basic design of most water-flow alarm valves? A. Butterfly valve with a timer B. Ball valve that opens under heat C. Check valve that lifts from its seat when water flows D. Gate valve controlled by sensors Correct Answer: C Rationale: Water-flow alarm valves use a check valve design; when water flows, it lifts the valve from its seat, triggering an alarm. 2. What characterizes a vane type waterflow switch? A. Requires manual reset after activation B. Has a paddle inside the pipe and cannot be used in dry systems C. Uses a float mechanism D. Is mounted externally on all pipes Correct Answer: B Rationale: Vane-type switches have an internal paddle that moves with water flow and are unsuitable for dry pipe systems. 3. What is the purpose of an alarm retarding device? A. To amplify the water flow B. To initiate the alarm faster C. To prevent false alarms from pressure surges D. To lubricate the check valve Correct Answer: C
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1. What is the basic design of most water-flow alarm valves? A. Butterfly valve with a timer B. Ball valve that opens under heat C. Check valve that lifts from its seat when water flows D. Gate valve controlled by sensors Correct Answer: C Rationale: Water-flow alarm valves use a check valve design; when water flows, it lifts the valve from its seat, triggering an alarm. 2. What characterizes a vane type waterflow switch? A. Requires manual reset after activation B. Has a paddle inside the pipe and cannot be used in dry systems C. Uses a float mechanism D. Is mounted externally on all pipes Correct Answer: B Rationale: Vane-type switches have an internal paddle that moves with water flow and are unsuitable for dry pipe systems. 3. What is the purpose of an alarm retarding device? A. To amplify the water flow B. To initiate the alarm faster C. To prevent false alarms from pressure surges D. To lubricate the check valve Correct Answer: C Rationale: The device delays alarm activation during temporary pressure surges to avoid false alarms. 4. Which pump is most commonly used in fire protection systems? A. Reciprocating pump B. Centrifugal pump C. Axial flow pump
D. Gear pump Correct Answer: B Rationale: The centrifugal pump is reliable, low maintenance, and widely used in fire systems.
5. What is unique about the vertical turbine pump? A. It requires pressurized suction B. It can draw water from open sources like ponds C. It only works with electricity D. It uses gear impellers Correct Answer: B Rationale: Vertical turbine pumps draw water via suction, making them ideal for use with open sources. 6. How can a fire pump be activated? A. Only manually B. Only by temperature sensors C. Automatically or manually via controllers D. By weekly manual test Correct Answer: C Rationale: Fire pumps start via electric or engine controllers based on pressure drop or flow. 7. What is the function of a pressure maintenance pump (jockey pump)? A. To cool down the main pump B. To increase suction pressure C. To maintain system pressure due to minor leaks or surges D. To flush the sprinkler system Correct Answer: C Rationale: Jockey pumps maintain system pressure by compensating for minor pressure drops. 8. When are booster pumps typically used in sprinkler systems? A. When flow exceeds 1000 gpm B. To cool fire pumps C. When the top-floor pressure is inadequate D. Only during maintenance Correct Answer: C Rationale: Booster pumps supplement water pressure at higher elevations in the system. 9. What do branch lines in a sprinkler system connect to? A. Cross mains
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Fire pump rooms must be heated to at least 40°F to prevent freezing.
15. How high above the highest sprinkler head should gravity tanks be placed? A. 15 feet B. 25 feet C. 30 feet D. 40 feet Correct Answer: B Rationale: Gravity tanks must be at least 25 feet above the top sprinkler to maintain pressure. 16. What is a method used to heat gravity tanks? A. Electrical coils B. Solar heating C. Discharging steam into the tank D. Gas burners Correct Answer: C Rationale: Steam may be discharged into the tank or use steam coils to maintain temperature. 17. At what rate do automatic fill pumps typically supply water to gravity tanks? A. 30 gpm B. 45 gpm C. 65 gpm D. 100 gpm Correct Answer: C Rationale: Automatic fill pumps commonly supply water at 65 gallons per minute. 18. What is the capacity range of centrifugal pumps? A. 25 to 500 gallons per minute B. 25 to 1000 gallons per minute C. 25 to 5000 gallons per minute D. 100 to 3000 gallons per minute Correct Answer: C Rationale: Centrifugal pumps can handle flows between 25 and 5000 gpm. 19. What is the purpose of gate valves in fire protection systems? A. Control alarm delay B. Cool system piping C. Shut off or isolate parts of the system D. Regulate temperature
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Gate valves allow for isolation and maintenance of sprinkler sections.
20. Who is responsible for maintaining sprinkler systems and determining qualifications? A. Maintenance staff B. Fire department C. Owner D. System designer Correct Answer: C Rationale: The building owner holds ultimate responsibility for the system's upkeep. 21. How long must sprinkler system inspection and maintenance records be kept on-site? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years Correct Answer: C Rationale: NFPA requires that all records be maintained on the premises for at least 3 years. 22. Who must the building owner assign to ensure compliance with fire protection requirements? A. Fire chief B. Facility manager C. Impairment coordinator D. Sprinkler technician Correct Answer: C Rationale: The impairment coordinator is responsible for ensuring compliance during impairments. 23. Planned removal from service may not affect more than how many floors? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: A Rationale: Planned maintenance affecting more than one floor is considered an unplanned outage. 24. Shutdowns affecting more than one floor are considered what type of condition? A. Scheduled maintenance
B. Warning lights C. Tags D. Warning tape Correct Answer: C Rationale: Tags are placed on control points to indicate out-of-service conditions.
30. Who is authorized to post OOS tags at valves? A. Electrician B. Building superintendent C. Master Fire Suppression Piping Contractor D. Plumber Correct Answer: C Rationale: Only a certified MFSPC is permitted to post such tags. 31. What must be written on the tag for OOS identification? A. Contact phone B. Inspector’s initials C. Drain test results D. Date of inspection Correct Answer: C Rationale: Tags must include static and flow pressure results from the drain test. 32. What does a green tag indicate? A. Minor impairment B. Major issue C. No impairment found D. System needs inspection Correct Answer: C Rationale: Green tags signify the system is functioning properly with no impairments. 33. Where are green tags placed? A. Any visible location B. On control panels C. On the main control valve D. On alarm bells Correct Answer: C Rationale: Green tags are placed on the system’s main control valve. 34. What color tag indicates the system is fully or partially out of service? A. Green B. Blue C. Red D. Yellow
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Red tags are used for systems that are not fully operational.
35. What does a white disc on the connection indicate? A. Routine maintenance B. Partially operational system C. Fully out of service system D. Recently tested system Correct Answer: C Rationale: A white disc (8–9 inches) marks a fully OOS condition. 36. What does a blue disc signify? A. Fully functional system B. Standby status C. System partially out of service D. Test mode Correct Answer: C Rationale: Blue discs indicate partial system outage. 37. Who should the impairment coordinator notify during an OOS condition? A. Local mayor B. Insurance carrier, central station, and occupants C. Maintenance crew D. State inspector Correct Answer: B Rationale: All key stakeholders including insurance and occupants must be notified. 38. Before returning a system to service, who must ensure testing is complete? A. COF holder B. Maintenance staff C. Fire inspector D. Impairment coordinator Correct Answer: D Rationale: The impairment coordinator verifies all tests before service restoration. 39. What percentage of glycerin and glycol is acceptable to prevent freezing? A. 50% glycerin and 30% glycol B. 30% glycerin and 50% glycol C. 50% glycerin and 40% glycol D. 40% glycerin and 50% glycol Correct Answer: C Rationale: This specific mixture ratio is required to prevent system freezing.
45. A master plumber with COF may work on systems with how many sprinkler heads max? A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 50 Correct Answer: C Rationale: Their license is limited to systems with 30 sprinkler heads or fewer. 46. What percentage of fires are extinguished or controlled with sprinkler systems? A. 75% B. 85% C. 90% D. 96% Correct Answer: D Rationale: Sprinkler systems are extremely effective, controlling 96% of fires. 47. What is the minimum water temperature in wet pipe systems to prevent freezing? A. 32°F B. 35°F C. 40°F D. 45°F Correct Answer: C Rationale: Water must be kept at a minimum of 40°F to avoid pipe freezing. 48. What type of valves are no longer allowed to be installed? A. Ball valves B. Cold weather valves C. Butterfly valves D. Pressure relief valves Correct Answer: B Rationale: Cold weather valves are outdated and not permitted in new systems. 49. What system is installed where wet systems can't prevent freezing? A. Deluge B. Foam C. Dry pipe D. Preaction Correct Answer: C Rationale: Dry pipe systems are used in areas where freezing is a concern.
50. What triggers dry pipe valves to open? A. Flow rate B. High pressure C. Drop in air pressure D. High temperature Correct Answer: C Rationale: A pressure drop in the air chamber causes the valve to release water. 51. What system is used where unintended activation could cause water damage? A. Wet pipe B. Dry pipe C. Preaction D. Deluge Correct Answer: C Rationale: Preaction systems require two events (detection and sprinkler activation) before releasing water, minimizing accidental discharge risk. 52. What system is activated by a detection system and releases water through open sprinklers? A. Wet pipe B. Dry pipe C. Preaction D. Deluge Correct Answer: D Rationale: Deluge systems are used in high-hazard areas and release water simultaneously through all open sprinklers. 53. When are new buildings required to have a fire department connection? A. When the building exceeds 2 stories B. Always C. Only for commercial buildings D. If occupancy exceeds 50 people Correct Answer: B Rationale: FDNY requires all new buildings to have an FDC for fire department use. 54. Fire department connections must have what valve type to prevent backflow? A. Check valve B. Ball valve C. Control valve D. Butterfly valve Correct Answer: A Rationale: Check valves ensure one-way water flow and prevent contamination or backflow into the water supply.
Correct Answer: B Rationale: The Certificate of Fitness holder is tasked with ensuring proper accessibility and visibility of standpipe hose outlets.
60. What must be done if a red tag is found on a sprinkler system? A. Remove it immediately B. Notify building occupants only C. System must not be used until it is repaired and retested D. Replace with a green tag Correct Answer: C Rationale: A red tag indicates an impairment; the system must remain out of service until it passes inspection and testing. 61. What type of system has piping filled with compressed air instead of water? A. Deluge B. Wet pipe C. Dry pipe D. Preaction Correct Answer: C Rationale: In a dry pipe system, compressed air holds a valve closed, preventing water from filling the pipes until sprinkler activation. 62. In a fire emergency, who has authority over all building fire protection systems? A. Building engineer B. COF holder C. FDNY incident commander D. Central station operator Correct Answer: C Rationale: The FDNY incident commander assumes full control over fire protection resources during emergencies. 63. What action is required if a defect is discovered that does not impair system function? A. Immediate shutdown B. Notify FDNY C. Record and fix within 30 days D. Remove sprinkler heads Correct Answer: C Rationale: Minor non-impairing defects must be documented and corrected within 30 days to maintain compliance.
64. What is the purpose of a pressure reducing valve in a sprinkler or standpipe system? A. Increase water velocity B. Reduce air pressure C. Maintain safe pressure at outlets D. Prevent rust formation Correct Answer: C Rationale: PRVs regulate and reduce excessive pressure to prevent equipment damage or unsafe conditions. 65. What must be conducted before any planned system shutdown? A. FDNY site visit B. Evacuation drill C. Risk assessment and notification of stakeholders D. Sprinkler head replacement Correct Answer: C Rationale: Before any planned impairment, a formal risk assessment and communication with insurance, central station, and occupants are required. PREACTION SPRINKLER SYSTEMS - ANSWER designed for situations where there is danger of serious water damage. Water damage is usually caused by damaged sprinklers or broken piping. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping. The air in the piping may or may not be is under pressure. A preaction valve prevents the water from entering the system. The valve is automatically opened when a fire detection system discovers that there is a fire or smoke condition. The preaction valve is tripped by the fire detection system before any of the sprinkler heads open. A supervisory device signals when the valve is opened. The preaction valve can also be operated manually. DELUGE SPRINKLER SYSTEMS - ANSWER equipped with open sprinkler heads designed to wet down an entire area involved in a fire. This system is needed when there is danger of a fire rapidly spreading throughout the building. The deluge system will slow down the spread of the fire. Deluge systems are suitable for hazardous occupancies. This includes buildings in which flammable liquids or other hazardous materials are handled or stored. The sprinkler heads in the deluge system are open at all times. Under normal conditions there is no water in the piping. The air in the piping is not under pressure. A closed control valve prevents water from flowing into the system. A fire detection device automatically opens the control valve when a fire is identified. A supervisory device signals when the valve is opened. When the valve is opened water flows into the system. The water is then discharged out all of the sprinkler heads. The water control valve may also be opened manually. NON-AUTOMATIC DRY SPRINKLER SYSTEMS