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FAA Private Pilot Airplane (PAR) Questions
and Verified Elaborations (100 OUT OF 100)
LATEST UPDATE
Required inspections Remember "A-AV1ATE" A - Annual inspection (12 calendar months) A - Airworthiness Directives (AD's) V - VOR (IFR only, 30 days) 1 - 100 hour inspection if aircraft is used for hire or flight instruction A - Altimeter and static pressure systems (IFR only, 24 calendar months) T - Transponder (24 calendar months) E - Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) (12 months, batteries replaced after 50% use or 1 hour of cumulative use) Where are Mode C transponders required?
- Class A airspace (IFR only, you really need a Mode S transponder for 1090ES ADS-B Out)
- Class B airspace (and 30NM Mode C veil)
- Class C airspace (and above)
- Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding below 2,500 feet AGL Required documents for pilots?
- Pilot certificate
- Medical certificate
- Government issued photo ID
Required documents for aircraft? Remember "ARROW": A - Airworthiness certificate R - Registration certificate R - Radio operator's license (for international flights) O - Operating limitations (POH) W - Weight and balance information When does a Registration Certificate expire? After 3 years Note: NOT 36 calendar months (this is an exception) Third class medical certificate
- If under 40 at time of exam, expires on the last day of the month 60 calendar months after the month the exam took place
- If over 40 at time of exam, expires on the last day of the month 24 calendar months after the month the exam took place What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot? For private pilots:
- Flight review every 24 months, must receive a logbook endorsement
- To carry passengers during the day, must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days. Can be touch-and-go, unless you're in a tailwheel airplane.
- To carry passengers at night, must have completed 3 takeoffs and landings at night (defined as 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise) within the last 90 days. Can't be touch-and-go, must be full stop.
- Solid magenta line on a sectional chart Class D airspace
- Small airports with a control tower
- Two-way radio communication with ATC required to enter (controller must say your callsign)
- For VFR, remember "3 Cessna 152s" a) 3 SM visibility b) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds c) Fly at least 500 feet below clouds d) Fly at least 2000 feet horizontally from clouds
- If the tower is not operational, can revert to Class E airspace
- Dashed blue line on a sectional chart
- Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out NOT required Class E airspace
- Controlled airspace not designated as A, B, C, or D.
- "Controlled" because IFR aircraft are controlled by ATC, but VFR are on their own
- ADS-B Out required above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding below 2,500 feet AGL)
- For VFR below 10,000 feet MSL, remember "3 Cessna 152s" a) 3 SM visibility b) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds c) Fly at least 500 feet below clouds d) Fly at least 2000 feet horizontally from clouds
- For VFR at or above 10,000 feet MSL: a) 5 SM visibility b) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds c) Fly at least 1000 feet below clouds
d) Fly at least 1 SM horizontally from clouds
- Shaded magenta line on a sectional chart = Class E starts at 700 feet AGL (Class G below)
- Dashed magenta line on a sectional chart = Class E starts at surface
- Unless otherwise indicated, Class E is from 1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet AGL Class G airspace
- Uncontrolled airspace not designated as A-E
- VFR, day: a) Below 1200 feet AGL: i) 1 SM visibility ii) Clear of clouds b) Between 1200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL: i) 1 SM visibility ii) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds, 500 feet below, 2000 feet horizontal c) At or above 10,000 feet MSL: i) 5 SM visibility ii) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds, 1000 feet below, 1 SM horizontal
- VFR, night (same as Class E): a) Below 10,000 feet MSL: i) 3 SM visibility ii) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds, 500 feet below, 2000 feet horizontal b) At or above 10,000 feet MSL: i) 5 SM visibility ii) Fly at least 1000 feet above clouds, 1000 feet below, 1 SM horizontal
- Usually extends from surface to 1200 feet AGL (non-inclusive), unless otherwise indicated Prohibited airspace (special use)
NOTAMs tell you where TFRs exist. Hypoxia Lack of oxygen. Fix by descending to a lower altitude, use supplemental oxygen. Carbon monoxide poisoning Headache, drowsiness, dizziness, loss of muscle power. Turn off the heater, use supplemental oxygen. Rotating beacon at an airport (green/white) Weather does not meet VFR minimums Rotating beacon at an airport (green/white/white) Military base Rotating beacon at an airport (yellow/white) Seaplane base Rotating beacon at an airport (green/yellow/white) Heliport
Position lights Remember "Red on the right, you're not alright"
- Left wing = Red
- Right wing = Green
- Tail = White There is also a red rotating beacon. V_S Lower limit of the white arc on ASI, power-off stall speed with flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration V_FE Upper limit of the white arc on ASI, maximum full flaps extended speed V_S Lower limit of the green arc on ASI, power-off stall speed with flaps and landing gear in a specified configuration (usually flaps up and landing gear retracted) V_NO Upper limit of the green arc on ASI, maximum structural cruising speed for Normal Operation (NO) Yellow arc on airspeed indicator Caution range, smooth air only
In the Northern Hemisphere, a compass lags when turning from a north heading and leads when turning from a south heading. No turning errors when turning from an east or west heading. What instruments rely on the pitot-static system as a source of pressure?
- Airspeed indicator (ASI)
- Vertical speed indicator (VSI)
- Altimeter Note: Ram pressure for ASI only. If only the pitot tube is clogged, only the ASI will be inoperative. Static vents clogged affects all three. Altimeter hands Short hand (or long, thin, with triangle tip) = 10,000 feet Medium hand = 1,000 feet Long hand = 100 feet Absolute altitude AGL True altitude Actual height above MSL, not affected by AGL Density altitude Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperatures
The altitude at which the airplane "feels" like it is flying. The primary reason for knowing density altitude is to determine airplane performance. Cold/dry/high pressure air = low density altitude = good performance (the plane "feels" like it is flying at a lower altitude than it really is). Hot/humid/low pressure air = high density altitude = bad performance (the plane "feels" like it is flying at a higher altitude than it really is). Pressure altitude Height above the standard datum plane of 29.92 inches of mercury. Indicated altitude when altimeter is set to 29.92 inches Hg When does indicated altitude equal true altitude? When standard conditions exist (29.92 inches Hg and 15C at sea level) and the altimeter is calibrated properly When does pressure altitude equal true altitude? When standard atmospheric conditions exist (29.92 inches Hg and 15C at sea level) How can you determine the correct altimeter setting?
- ATIS
- Otherwise, adjust setting until indicated altitude equals true altitude at the airport elevation Altimeter errors
Fuel-air mixture Internal combustion engines have a mixture of air and fuel in the combustion chamber. Lean the mixture (provide less fuel) at higher altitudes - air is less dense at higher altitudes, so less fuel is needed to maintain the ratio Note: Carburetor heat enriches the mixture because warm air is less dense - less air with the same amount of fuel Alternator Converts mechanical energy into electricity (AC), only active while the engine is running. The alternator supplies current to the electrical system (which converts the AC to 14 or 28 VDC) and maintains an electrical charge on the battery. If the alternator fails, the electrical system switches to battery power until the battery dies. Runway 18 alignment Points 180 degrees magnetic (due south, so coming in from the north). When landing, your magnetic heading should match the runway number, heading 180 for runway 18. Runway 27 alignment Points 270 degrees magnetic (due west, so coming in from the east). When landing, your magnetic heading should match the runway number, heading 270 for runway 27. Runway holding position sign
- White characters on a red background
- Stop until you have an ATC clearance Destination signs
Black characters on a yellow background with an arrow Taxiway location signs Yellow characters on a black background, identify the current taxiway Activate Pilot-Controlled Lighting (PCL)
- Click the mic 7 times
- Stop clicking for high intensity lights
- Click 5 times for medium, 3 times for low intensity lights Weather front A boundary between 2 air masses of different density or pressure.
- There is always a change in wind when flying across a front
- The most easily recognizable change when crossing a front is the change in temperature Thunderstorms Life Cycle Three phases:
- Cumulus: Building stage, continuous updrafts
- Mature: Greatest intensity, updrafts and downdrafts, causing severe wind shear and turbulence. Rain marks the start of mature stage. Rain creates downdrafts
- Dissipating: When there are only downdrafts (storm is raining itself out) What causes thunderstorms?
Stable air characteristics
- Stratiform clouds
- Smooth air
- Decent to poor visibility
- Continuous precipitation
- Cool
- Dry Unstable air characteristics
- Cumuliform clouds
- Turbulent air
- Good visibility
- Showery precipitation
- Warm
- Humid Radiation fog Most likely to form when there is a clear sky, no wind, and a small temperature/dew point spread Advection fog Formed when moist air condenses as it moves over a cooler surface Upslope fog Forms when warm, moist air cools as it is forced up sloped terrain (mountains)
Precipitation-induced fog Forms when warm rain falls through cool air
- Usually associated with fronts, turbulence, thunderstorms Steam fog Forms in the winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over warm ocean waters What does "nimbus" mean? Rain cloud FAA Advisory Circulars (ACs) Non-regulatory publications from the FAA 60 - Airmen 70 - Airspace 90 - Air Traffic and General Operating Rules What causes differences in wind direction between the surface and high altitudes? Wind is slower at the surface due to friction between wind and the Earth's surface Magnetic variation The angular difference between true north and magnetic north
What does the color of the airport symbol on a sectional chart represent? Blue = control tower, Magenta = no control tower Minimum altitude over national wildlife reserves? 2000 feet AGL What does a star symbol above the airport symbol on a sectional chart mean? There is a rotating beacon at the airport from sunrise to sunset What airport data is available on a sectional chart? Example: KANSAS CITY INTL (MCI) * CT - 128.2 ATIS - 128. 1027 L 108 122.
- Control tower (CT) frequency 128.2 MHz
- ATIS (automated weather reports) frequency 128.375 MHz
- Airport elevation 1027 feet MSL
- L = standard lighting at night
- 108 = 10,800 feet is the length of the longest hard-surface runway
- UNICOM frequency = 122. In congested areas, fly at least how high above obstructions?
1000 feet In rural (non-congested) areas, fly at least how high above obstructions? 500 feet Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) Represents the highest elevation within a quadrant on a sectional chart, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees, etc) What does a VORTAC look like on a sectional chart? Hexagon with small rectangles attached to 3 of the sides (looks like a shield) What does a VOR/DME look like on a sectional chart? Hexagon within a square What does a VOR look like on a sectional chart? Hexagon with a dot in the center Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) Time-critical notifications (runway closures, ILS is down, etc) Is a clearance required to enter a MOA?
