Excelsior - NUR209 Reproductive Health - Final Exam Review 2024, Exams of Nursing

Download Excelsior - NUR209 Reproductive Health - Final Exam Review 2024 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR 209

Reproductive Health

FINAL EXAM REVIEW

1. Multiple Choice: Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle? a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Correct Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone Rationale: Luteinizing hormone is crucial for the regulation of the menstrual cycle as it triggers ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum.
2. Fill-in-the-Blank: The most common chromosomal disorder resulting in congenital anomalies is __________. Correct Answer: Down syndrome Rationale: Down syndrome, caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, is the most prevalent chromosomal disorder leading to congenital anomalies.
3. True/False: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to infertility if left untreated. Correct Answer: True Rationale: Untreated PID can cause scarring and blockages in the reproductive tract, which can result in infertility.

Rationale: Menopause is the term used to describe the end of menstrual cycles, typically occurring in women in their late 40s to early 50s.

7. True/False: Testicular torsion is a condition that can be corrected with timely surgical intervention. Correct Answer: True Rationale: Testicular torsion requires prompt surgical treatment to untwist the spermatic cord and restore blood flow to prevent tissue death.
8. Multiple Response: Select all that apply. Which of the following are considered teratogens? a) Alcohol b) Folic acid c) Tobacco smoke d) Certain medications Correct Answers: a), c), and d) Rationale: Teratogens are substances that can cause congenital anomalies; alcohol, tobacco smoke, and certain medications are known teratogens, while folic acid is not.
9. Multiple Choice: Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a single extra chromosome in each cell? a) Turner syndrome b) Klinefelter syndrome c) Trisomy 21

d) Cystic fibrosis Correct Answer: c) Trisomy 21 Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is characterized by an extra chromosome 21 in each cell.

10. Fill-in-the-Blank: The process by which sperm are produced in the male reproductive system is called __________. Correct Answer: Spermatogenesis Rationale: Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production, occurring in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.
11. True/False: Breastfeeding can reduce the risk of developing breast cancer later in life. Correct Answer: True Rationale: Studies have shown that breastfeeding can lower the risk of breast cancer, likely due to hormonal changes during lactation.
12. Multiple Response: Select all that apply. Which of the following are components of prenatal care? a) Genetic screening b) Nutritional counseling c) Regular exercise d) Exposure to environmental toxins Correct Answers: a), b), and c)

16. Multiple Response: Select all that apply. Which of the following are signs of preeclampsia? a) High blood pressure b) Swelling of the hands and feet c) Excessive weight gain d) Blurred vision Correct Answers: a), b), and d) Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, swelling, and blurred vision; excessive weight gain is not a specific sign. Multiple Choice: What is the most common genetic disorder affecting males? A) Turner syndrome B) Klinefelter syndrome C) Down syndrome D) Cystic fibrosis Correct Answer: B) Klinefelter syndrome Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome, characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, is the most common genetic condition affecting the male population. Fill-in-the-Blank:

The primary hormone responsible for regulating the menstrual cycle is __. Correct Answer: estrogen Rationale: Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle by promoting the growth of the endometrial lining. True/False: The incidence of congenital anomalies is higher in infants born to mothers over the age of 35. Correct Answer: True Rationale: Advanced maternal age is associated with an increased risk of congenital anomalies due to factors such as chromosomal abnormalities. Multiple Response: Which of the following are considered risk factors for developing gestational diabetes? (Select all that apply) A) Obesity B) Family history of diabetes C) Age over 25 D) Regular physical activity Correct Answers: A) Obesity, B) Family history of diabetes, C) Age over 25 Rationale: Obesity, a family history of diabetes, and advanced maternal age are known risk factors for gestational diabetes, while regular physical activity is protective.

Multiple Response: Which of the following methods can be used to assess fetal health during pregnancy? (Select all that apply) A) Ultrasound B) Amniocentesis C) Blood pressure monitoring D) Non-stress test Correct Answers: A) Ultrasound, B) Amniocentesis, D) Non-stress test Rationale: Ultrasound, amniocentesis, and non-stress tests are common methods for assessing fetal health, while blood pressure monitoring is not specific to fetal health. Multiple Choice: The primary purpose of prenatal vitamins is to ensure adequate intake of __. A) Protein B) Calcium C) Folate D) Iron Correct Answer: C) Folate Rationale: Prenatal vitamins are particularly focused on providing adequate folate to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.

Fill-in-the-Blank: __ is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. Correct Answer: Amenorrhea Rationale: Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be caused by various factors, including hormonal imbalances. True/False: The use of contraception has no impact on the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Correct Answer: False Rationale: While contraception can prevent pregnancy, only barrier methods such as condoms provide protection against STIs. Multiple Response: Which of the following conditions can lead to infertility in women? (Select all that apply) A) Endometriosis B) Ovulatory disorders C) Uterine fibroids D) High levels of physical activity Correct Answers: A) Endometriosis, B) Ovulatory disorders, C) Uterine fibroids

Correct Answer: True Rationale: Prenatal genetic testing allows for the diagnosis of many genetic disorders before birth, enabling early intervention and planning. Multiple Response: Which of the following are signs of preterm labor? (Select all that apply) A) Regular contractions B) Lower back pain C) Swelling of the hands and feet D) Fluid leakage from the vagina Correct Answers: A) Regular contractions, B) Lower back pain, D) Fluid leakage from the vagina Rationale: Regular contractions, lower back pain, and fluid leakage are indicative of preterm labor, while swelling of the hands and feet is common in pregnancy but not specific to preterm labor. Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common complication of pregnancy that can affect both the mother and the fetus? A) Hyperemesis gravidarum B) Gestational diabetes C) Preeclampsia D) All of the above Correct Answer: D) All of the above

Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia are all complications that can impact the health of the mother and fetus. Fill-in-the-Blank: The __ is a procedure used to extract amniotic fluid for genetic testing. Correct Answer: amniocentesis Rationale: Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure that involves the extraction of amniotic fluid to analyze fetal genetic material. True/False: A family history of genetic disorders does not increase the risk of having a child with a genetic disorder. Correct Answer: False Rationale: A family history of genetic disorders can significantly increase the risk of having a child with similar conditions due to inherited genetic factors. Multiple Response: Which of the following are essential components of prenatal care? (Select all that apply) A) Regular check-ups B) Nutritional counseling C) Genetic screening D) Antibiotic prophylaxis

3. Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
   • A) Previous pelvic inflammatory disease
   • B) Use of intrauterine devices (IUD)
   • C) Smoking
   • D) Having multiple pregnancies Answer: D) Having multiple pregnancies Rationale: While multiple pregnancies may pose other risks, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.
4. What is the main purpose of preconception counseling?
   • A) To ensure adequate prenatal vitamins are taken
   • B) To prepare for labor and delivery
   • C) To address health risks that could affect pregnancy outcomes
   • D) To educate about breastfeeding techniques Answer: C) To address health risks that could affect pregnancy outcomes Rationale: Preconception counseling focuses on optimizing health and managing risks prior to conception.
5. The primary advantage of prenatal care is:
   • A) It ensures a pain-free labor.

• B) It is a legal requirement for all pregnancies.
• C) It enhances the likelihood of healthy birth outcomes.
• D) It allows for free ultrasounds. Answer: C) It enhances the likelihood of healthy birth outcomes. Rationale: Regular prenatal visits are associated with improved maternal and fetal health.

Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

6. The process of fertilization typically occurs in the ________. Answer: fallopian tube Rationale: The fallopian tubes are where sperm and egg meet, resulting in fertilization.
7. _______ is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21. Answer: Down syndrome Rationale: Down syndrome is due to trisomy 21, characterized by distinct physical traits and developmental challenges.
8. In males, the hormone responsible for stimulating sperm production is ________. Answer: testosterone

Answer: True Rationale: Follicular fluid surrounds the developing oocyte and provides essential support for its maturation.

13. True/False: Anencephaly is a congenital anomaly where a newborn is born with a partial or complete absence of the brain and skull. Answer: True Rationale: Anencephaly is a severe form of neural tube defect resulting in significant neurological issues.
14. True/False: Intrauterine devices (IUDs) provide hormonal protection against pregnancy. Answer: False Rationale: Non-hormonal IUDs primarily prevent pregnancy by creating a local inflammatory reaction, while hormonal IUDs release hormones.
15. True/False: Breastfeeding is not recommended for infants with galactosemia. Answer: True Rationale: Infants with galactosemia cannot metabolize galactose found in breast milk, necessitating formula feeding.

Multiple Response Questions

16. Which of the following are potential complications of gestational diabetes? (Choose all that apply)
    • A) Macrosomia
    • B) Early labor
    • C) Hypoglycemia in the newborn
    • D) Preterm birth Answer: A) Macrosomia, C) Hypoglycemia in the newborn, D) Preterm birth Rationale: Gestational diabetes can lead to larger infants (macrosomia), increased risk of birth complications, and hypoglycemia in newborns after delivery.
17. Select all that are considered risk factors for developing polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS):
    • A) Obesity
    • B) Genetic predisposition
    • C) Low physical activity
    • D) High-protein diet Answer: A) Obesity, B) Genetic predisposition, C) Low physical activity Rationale: Obesity, family history, and sedentary lifestyle are all correlated with PCOS development.
18. Which of the following symptoms could indicate a possible reproductive health disorder in females? (Select all that apply)