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~ Phar 752 Exam #3, 8 November 2005
This test consists of 50 questions worth a total of 150 points (Questions #1-48 are 3 pts
each; #49-50 are variable). There are a total of 15 pages. Check that your test is complete.
Record your answers for questions #1-48 on a scantron sheet and turn in BOTH the
printed exam and the scantron sheet.
Name (Last, First)~ Student il #
- -l An anxiety disorder that is characterized by an irational fear of public places is classified as: (3 pts)
A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Agoraphobia C. Panic disorder D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) E. Post-traumatic stress disorder
- ~^ According to neuroimaging studies, the sight of a face with a fearl expression causes an increase in the activity of which of the following? (3 pts)
A. The ascending (^) arousal system B. The stratum C. The brainstem D. The thalamus E. The amygdala
3. L Choose the statement that best describes benzodiazepines: (3 pts)
A. Their action results in the closure of cr channels B. They are parial agonists at postsynaptic 5-HT lA receptors C. They enhance the action of GABA at GABAA receptors D. They are agonists at presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors E. They are antagonists at postsynaptic beta adrenergic receptors
- -l Studies have shown that: (3 pts)
A. Benzodiazepine receptor inverse a~.nlsts have an anxiolytic effect in the
amygdala -.
B. Benzodiazepine receptor agonists. have an ~!i:!yttc effe~t in the amygdala C. Anxiety disorder patients have an j!!çr~ase in benzodlazepine receptors in some brain areas D. Benzodiazepine receptor antagonis.ts have an anx~2lY!c effect in the amygdala E. Anxiety disorder patients-vehypersensitivebenzodiazepine receptors in some brain areas
. Phar 752 Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 2 Fori 1
- -t Choose the statement that best describes buspirone: (3 pts)
Name (Last, Firs~~ Student il #
A. Its aniolytic actlon is due to its active metabolite 1-2-pyrimidinylpiperazine (1- PP) B. It is a parial agonist at postsynaptic 5- tI.. lA receptors C. It is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptors D.. It is an agonist at presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors E. It is an antagonist at postsynaptic beta adrenergic receptors
- A- Choose the statement that best describes sele£.t-,,~_~~!o.t()IliIlreuptake inhibitors (SSRIs): (3 pts) -'.
/"") p'!^ i' (^) /\ t l) ()
A. They have an anxiolytc effect within minutes of the first dose B. They are effective in treating obsessive-compulsive disorder C. They are not effective in treating gene!ali:zed anxiety disorder D. They are not effective in treating panic disorder ~¿. E. They are not effective in treating post traumatic stress disorder
- L. Which statement best describes the sedative mechanism of action of dexmedetomidine? (3 pts)
A. Increased norepinephrne release by activation of presynaptic alela- adrenergic receptors. B. Decreased postsynaptic activity by blockade of postsynaptic alpha-l receptors. C. Decreased norepinephrine release by activation of presynaptic alpha- adrenergic re~£tors. ----..------~.~~- D. 1ñcrease~tsyñàptic activity by direct activation of postsynaptic alpha-l receptors. E. Increased norepinephrne release by blockade of presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors.
8. A Drug A has anxiolytic and sedative/hypnQ~ons, produces tol~rance and
dependence, but is not lethal in overdose. Whch one of the following is Drug A most Tíkely to be? (3 pts)
A. a benzodiazepine B. a barbiturate / C. zolpidem " D. zaleplon E. meprobamate /"
"'_? )
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 4 Form 1
- L
Name (Last, First) ~ Student il #
Which benzodiazepine is a prodrg that requires decarboxylation to activate the drg? (3 pts)
A. Clonazepam B. Chlordiazepoxide C. Clorazepate D. Midazolam E. Quazepam
13. A Whch of the statements regarding benzodiazepine anxiolytics/sedatives is false?
(3 pts)
A. Addition of an electron-withdrawing group at the 4~ position greatly increases potency. B. Benzodiazepines are often highly lipophilic, which allows ready penetration of the BBB, an essential feature for the main action in the CNS. C. Many benzodiazepines have oneor ~~-i~1!~f-li~.i!.ç-t!y't_mçlalJolites that can accumulate in the body wÍt chronic dosing. D. Reduction of an ~QIDatiç nitro gi()np is an effective route of in~ctiy_~!!()n in some benzodiazepines. E. An electron-withdrawing group is essential in the 7 position of the benzodiazepine ring system'- --,,~ ' -,--.-
/
- ~ Cimetidine would be expected to have the greatest inhibitory effect on the metabolism of which sedative drg? (3 pts)
A. Butabarbital B. Dexmedetomidine C. Zaleplon D. Zolpidem E. Eszopiclone
- -- Which of the following general statements regarding barbiturates is ~e? (3 pts)
A. Thiobarbiturates typically have a rapid onset of action, but a relativtly,sliort duration.--- B. Sedative barbiturates must have two alkyl groups at the 5-lto--ition; protons at C5 would be highly acidic, resulting in a negatively charged drg. C. Barbiturates with increased lipophilicity often have raPL~.()n§,~toft?lt~,c:ts, but the duration of action is often li~ted due to re~istnbutiqn of these liP9philic compounds to peripheral tissues. D. The size of the alkyl groups at C5 must be relatively small, with the maximum size being an ethyl group. '_o_________.. E. The sodium salts of barbiturates allow formation of IV solutions, but once...~-'--..t..-..--~.. injected, it is the neutral form that accesses the CNS.
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 5 Form 1
16. L Whch sedative drg is reduced to trchloroethaIl, an active metabolite that
contrbutes the bulk of the sedative effect? (3 pts)
Name (Last, First)~ Student il #
A. Ramelteon B. Chloral hydrate C. Gama hydroxybutyrate D. Meprobamate E. Buspirone
- r¿ (^) Ciprofloxacin, a potent inhibitor of_Cypl~, would be expected to extend the half- life of which non-ergot dopamne agonist? (3 pts)
7
A. Apomorphine.^7 B. Prampexole C. Bromocriptine./ D. Pergolide ~ E. Ropinirole ~
- 17 Which of the following statements regarding selegilne is false? (3 pts) -~~...,-",-.....~.--,-.-. --
A. Selegiline is a mechanism-based, irreversible enzyme inhibitor. B. N-Desmethyl selegiline is also active as an enzyme inhibitor. C. The main action of selegiline is to inhibit ~etabolism of Cl9pamne in the~CNS. D. Esterase hydrolysis of selegiline prevents loI-I-:g-:ierm build-up of toxic levels of the active inhbitor. ' E. Removal of the propargyl group of selegiline results in the formation of R _( _ ) methamphetamne.
19. tL Which of the following neurotransmitters is considered the most widely distrbuted
in the brain: (3 pts)
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Norepinephrne D. Dopamne E. Acetylcholine
Exam #3,8 November 2005 Page 7 Form 1
24. ~ Whch of the following classes of agents would you expect to be the most effective
at improving cognitive function in patients suffering from Alzheimer's Disease: (3 pts)
Name (Last, First) ~ Student il # /...
A. COMT inhibitors
B. Acetylcholinesterase inhbitors C. Selective antagonists of the M1 subtype of muscarnic receptor D. Nonselective MAG inhbitors E. Selective serotonin reuptake inhbitors
- o^ Which of the following neuroactive peptides is associated with inhbition of adenylate cyclase? (3 pts) -
i. Met enkephalin II. Dynorphin II. ß-endorphin
LJ A.^ I only B. III only C. I and II only
D. II and il only
E. I, II and il
11
- ~V) The abuse liability of cocaine can be explained by its ability to increase functional levels of dopamne in which of the following brain areas: (3 pts)
i. Substantia nigra II. Ventral tegmental area III. Nucleus Accumbens
,,.' l. ~t_ ~"-VTir.,t\ l-__1'" Nt: )ö ?o. ' Ì'''L
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 8 Fori
Name (Last, Fi~
Student il
27. L Whch of the following statements explains the action of an inverse agonist at the
benzodiazepene recognition site of the GABAA receptor: (3 pts)
A. An inverse agonist enhances GAB (^) A-mediated chloride conductance B. An inverse agonist decreases GAB (^) A-mediated chloride conductance
C. An inverse agonist produces no change in GAB (^) A-mediated chloride conductance D. An inverse agonist blocks chloride conductance by binding to a site inside the chloride channel E. An inverse agonist is the same as a competitive GABA antagonist and therefore inhibits channel function
- ft^ Which of the following is correct with respect to varcosities found on a central noradrenergic neuron (3 pts)
i. Varcosities contain tyrosine hydroxylase."- II. Varcosities form the ~synaptic side of a central noradrenergic synapse III. Varcosities are cytoskeletal specializations on noradrenergic depcles ;. Il'f i.')v"' A. I only B. il only C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
i~
- -U (^) Which of the following is correct with respect to central neurons that have specialized regions known as postsynaptic densities: (3 pts)
I. Postsynaptic densities can form the postsynaptic side of i~!J9ry.~~ses.
II. Postsynaptic densities can be found on both th8 an~ of neurons that synthesize amno acid neurotransmitters ' '-u ~ III. Postsynaptic densities can form the postsynaptic sif excitatory synapses. .-
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
"'~)
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 10 Form 1
- -- Which of the following would be expected to inhbll the release of serotonin from a central serotonergic neuron. (3 pts)
Name (Last, First) ~ Student il #
,/
A. An agonist at presynaptic 5-HT1 ~utoreceptors v
B. An antagonist at presynaptic 5-HT1 autoreceptors C. A selective inhbitor of the presynaptic serotonin transporter (SERT) D. An agonist at postsynaptic 5-HT2 receptors E. Nonselective MAO inhbitors
35. L Which of the following brain regions is important for relaying sensory information
from the rest of the body to the motor cortex: (3 pts)
A. Cerebellum B. Hippocampus C. Thalamus D. Nucleus accumbens E. Locus ceruleus
- t Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a severe depletion of dopamne in which brain region: (3 pts)
l A. Nucleus accumbens B. Thalamus C. Ventral tegmental area D. Globus palldus E. Stratum
- C/ Newer dopamne agonists such as Ropinirole (Requip) and Prampexole (Mirapex) are characterized by greater selectivity for which subtype of Dopamine receptor: (3 pts)
A. D¡
B. D
C. D
D. D
E. Ds
38. L Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of Parkinson's Disease: (3 pts)
)
A. Resting tremor B. Mask-like or expressionless face C. Grimacing face and unpredictable movements of the tongue and face /' Sf:
D. Excessive salivation
E. All are considered clinical manifestations of idiopathc Parkinson's Disease
d c~ ~v. ':':;i'" - ,', ,) .)
Exam #3,8 November 2005 Page 11 Form Y1.,
- -d A severely aknetic Parkinson's patient would be expected to show which of (^) the following characteristics if assessed by PET scan using (i8F)fluro-L-DOP A? (3 pts)
Name (Last, First) ~ Student il #
i. A severe decrease in e8F)fluro-L-DOPA uptake II. (18F)Fluro-L-DOPA would block the dopamne transporter leading to a temporar increase in levels of dopamne in the stratum. III. A dramatic increase in (18p)fluro-L-DOPA uptake
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and il only
E. I, II and III
- -l S~lo differs from Sinemet in that which of the following has been added to the combination tablet: (3 pts)
A. Carbidopa B. Bromocriptine (Parlodel) C. Haloperidol D. Entacapone (Comtan) E. Selegiline (Deprenyl)
- -- In addition to the underlying neurodegenerative condition, L-DOPA therapy eventually causes drg-induced tolerance characterized by a gradual decrease in effectiveness of the therapy. Which of the following is least likely to cause drug- induced tolerance in the ,QIRCT pathway: (3 pts)
A. L-'Dopa in combination with a peripheral DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor B. A dopamne agonist with high affinity for Di-like and D2-like receptors C. A dopamne agonist with high affinity for D1-likereceptors. D. A dopamne agonist with high affinity for.Q2-likereceptors E. A nonselective monoamne oxidase inhibitor
42. L Which of the following statements best describes the biological activity of Parkin?
i. Parkin is an E3 ligase II. Mutations in Parkin are associated with (^) juvenile Parkinson's Disease il. Parkin is a selective D2 dopamne receptor antagonist
A. I only B III only 'C I and II only
D II and III only
E I, II and il
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 13 Form 1 Î'_
43. ~ Under NORMAL conditions activation of Dl dopamne receptors in the stratum
wil tend to (3 pts): -= -
Name (Last, First~ Student il #
i. Increase activation of GABAergic neurons located in the stratum and v' projecting to the substantia nigra II. Inbit the activity of GABAergic neurons located in the substantia nigra .. projecting to the thalamus II. Decrease stimulation of the motor cortex
A. I (^) only B. III only C. I and II only
D. II and il only
E. I, II and III
- L In the Parkinson's patient a LOSS of stratal dopamne in the DIRCT pathway wil tend tò (3 pts):
i. Incrtse activation of GABAergic neurons located in the striatum and projecting to the substantia nigra II. Inhibit the activity of GABAergic neurons located in the substantia nigra projecting to the thalamus III. Decrease stimulation of the motor cortex (^) v
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and il only
E. I, II and II
45. k Under NORMAL conditions activation of D2 dopamne receptors in the striatum
wil tend to (3 pts): ~
I. Increase activation of GABAergic neurons located in the stratum and .i projecting to the globus pallidus II. Decrease the actity of glutamatergic neurons located in the lateral thalamic .. nuclei projecting to the substantia nigra III. Decrease the activity of GABAergic projection neurons located in the substantia .. nigra projecting to the thalaìuS'
A. I only B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and il only E. I, II and II
Exam #3, 8 November 2005 Page 14 Form 1
Name (Last, First~ Student il # '
- (^) ~ In the Parkinson's patient a loss of stratal dopamine in the INIRCT pathway wil tend to (3 pts):
(! i. Decrease activation of cholinergic interneurons in the striatum II. Decrease the activity of glutamatergic neurons located in the lateral thalamc nuclei projecting to the substantia nigra III. Decrease the activity of glutamatergic projection neurons locat~d in the thalamus projecting to the motor cortex'
A. I only B. III (^) only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
L Which of the following side effects of L-Dopa (^) therapy is more common in patients takng L-dopa with carbidopa: (3 pts):
A. Hypertensive crisis
B. GI distress C. Hallucinations, vivid dreams and nightmares D. Arhythmias E. All of the above.
L Which of the following drugs would prevent a Parkinson's-like syndrome caused
by MPTP ((3 pts):
A. B. C. D. E.
Ropiniro~e ~Requip) --') ?tCl -ûn ~ rs Bromocnptine (Parlodel) J Tolcapone (Tasmar)--) CD yi
Entacapone (Comtan)/
Selegiline (Deprynl) - flY\D- ß
Oregon State University Test Scoring (^) PAGE 28 IpQi vidual Summary (^) (A) 8-NOV-05 15:
COURSE: Phar 752 INêTRUCTOR: Phil Proteau \ND- i KEY: j=ANY RESPONSE CORRECT ( ) =QUESTION IGNORED A-E=CORRECT RESPONSE JwERS: A-E=WRONG ANSWER. =CORRECT ANSWER -=NOT ANSWERED *=MULTIPLE ANSWER
SECTION: ALL FORM: ALL
JU ~~in1 U ~., (" SCORE:
/1 f _ .~O OUT OF 144.0 (^) 95.8%-) AVERAGE:
FORM: 1 SECTION: 1
118.9 MEDIAN: 120.
Question 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 Number 1- - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0 - - - - 5 - - - - 0
~~WER ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ POINTS 3333333333333333333333333333333 33333333333 3333
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